Abnormal Psychology quiz questions

Comer (7) Chapter 1: Abnormal Psychology: Past and Present
Practice Questions 1. (2) One who systematically gathers information in order to describe, predict, and explain abnormality is a clinical:
A) mentalist
B) legalist
C) scientist*
D) practitioner

2. (2) R. D. Laing said, “Insanity—a perfectly rational adjustment to an insane world.” This statement illustrates:
A) how dangerous most mentally ill people actually are
B) that abnormality is situational*
C) that everyone is a little eccentric
D) that drug use causes people to become mentally ill

3. (3) Behavior that violates legal norms is:
A) deviant and criminal*
B) distressful and criminal
C) deviant and psychopathological
D) distressful and psychopathological

4. (3) Which of the following depressed people would be the last likely to be diagnosed with a mental disorder—because of specific circumstances?
A) someone whose mother was depressed
B) someone whose community was destroyed by a tornado*
C) someone who was experiencing a chemical brain imbalance
D) someone who was also an alcoholic

5. (3) Panic, anxiety, and depression were common among those who lived in New Orleans during Hurricane Katrina. Why were these behaviors NOT considered deviant?
A) These behaviors are valued in our culture
B) These behaviors were the result of the circumstances*
C) These behaviors were considered deviant in the past, but not now
D) These behaviors are not illegal

6. (4) People who engage in frenetic, manic activity may not experience distress. They are:
A) nevertheless considered to be abnormal
B) not abnormal because abnormality requires distress
C) doing something illegal, not abnormal*
D) no longer considered abnormal, but were in the past

7. (4) Which aspect of the definition of abnormality includes the inability to care for oneself and work productively?
A) distress
B) deviance
C) dysfunction*
D) danger to self or others

8. (4) Which of the following examples would NOT be considered abnormal, despite the fact that it is dysfunctional?
A) someone who is too confused to drive safely
B) someone who parties so much that he or she cannot go to class
C) someone who goes on a hunger strike to protest social injustice*
D) someone who cannot stay alone for even one night

9. (4) Research shows that danger to self or others is found in:
A) all cases of abnormal functioning
B) most cases of abnormal functioning
C) some cases of abnormal functioning*
D) no cases of abnormal functioning

10. (4) Despite popular misconceptions, most people with psychological problems are not:
A) dysfunctional
B) dangerous*
C) distressing
D) deviant

11. (5) According to Thomas Szasz's views, the deviations that some call mental illness are really:
A) mental illnesses
B) problems in living*
C) caused by one's early childhood experiences
D) eccentric behaviors with a biological cause

12. (5) Defining abnormal behavior using “the four Ds”:
A) allows us create diagnoses that are clear-cut and not debatable
B) allows us to eliminate those who are merely eccentric
C) allows us to include those who experience no distress
D) is still often vague and subjective*

13. (6) Clinical theorist Jerome Frank would say that all forms of therapy include all of the following except a:
A) series of contacts
B) healer
C) third-party payer*
D) sufferer who seeks relief

14. (6) One who sees abnormality as a problem in living usually refers to those seeking help with their problems in living as:
A) pupils
B) patients
C) trainees
D) clients*

15. (6) Several researchers have shown that in a typical year in the United States about what percentage of adults show disturbances severe enough to need clinical treatment?
A) less than 1%
B) 5-10%
C) 10-15%
D) more than 15%*

16. (6) Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding the incidence of psychological abnormality, historically and worldwide?
A) It appears in all cultures during all time periods*
B) It appears in all cultures, but only during occasional time periods
C) It appears in only some cultures, but during all time periods in those cultures
D) It appears in only some cultures, and only occasionally in those cultures

17. (7) Which one of the following descriptors is NOT characteristic of an eccentric?
A) a thought disorder*
B) being a bad speller
C) not being married
D) being creative

18. (7) The view that abnormal behavior resulted from some magical force is most consistent with views held:
A) today
B) by scientists
C) by ancient peoples*
D) by somatogenics

19. (8) The practice of trephination was probably used to:
A) remove a part of the brain
B) relieve pressure on the brain
C) allow the release of evil spirits*
D) restore the balance among the four humors

20. (8) The use of exorcism suggests a belief that what we call mental illness was caused by:
A) germs
B) poisons
C) evil spirits*
D) psychological trauma

21. (8) If you were being treated by a shaman, you would most likely be undergoing:
A) psychoanalysis
B) gender-sensitive therapy
C) community-based treatment
D) an exorcism*

22. (8) Hippocrates believed that treatment for mental disorders should involve:
A) releasing evil spirits trapped in the brain
B) bringing the four body humors back into balance*
C) punishing the body for its sins
D) bloodletting

23. (8) Greek and Roman physicians described a person with mania as having symptoms of:
A) paranoia and aggression
B) euphoria and frenzied activity*
C) heightened perception of surroundings
D) inflexible and maladaptive personality traits

24. (8) Bob experiences unshakable sadness. His friends have given up trying to cheer him up because nothing works. An ancient Greek physician would have labeled his condition:
A) mania
B) hysteria
C) delusional
D) melancholia*

25. (8) Hippocrates's contribution to the development of our understanding of mental illness was the view that such conditions were the result of:
A) stress*
B) natural causes
C) brain pathology
D) spiritual deviations

26. (9) Which of the following “new diagnoses” would one experiencing overwhelming concern about being bombarded with an excessive information on the Internet most likely receive?
A) eco-anxiety
B) terrorism terror
C) crime phobia
D) cyber fear*

27. (9) Which of the following “new diagnoses” would someone experiencing overwhelming concern about where the safest neighborhoods and schools are most likely receive?
A) eco-anxiety
B) terrorism terror
C) crime phobia*
D) cyber fear

28. (10) “Abnormal behavior is a symptom of disease, and once the disease is cured, the abnormality will cease.” Who would agree most strongly with this statement?
A) St. Vitus
B) Hippocrates*
C) demonologists
D) clergy of the Middle Ages

29. (10) “What this person needs to be rid of abnormal behavior is a quiet life, a vegetarian diet, exercise, and celibacy.” Who would agree most strongly with this statement?
A) clergy of the Middle Ages
B) ancient Roman physicians*
C) Henry VIII
D) von Krafft-Ebing

30.(10) What model of mental illness did most people hold during the Middle Ages?
A) the moral model
B) the medical model
C) the psychogenic model
D) the demonology model*

31. (10) Tarantism and lycanthropy are examples of:
A) exorcism
B) mass madness*
C) physical pathology causing mental illness
D) disorders that were treated with trephination

32. (10) St. Vitus's dance, characterized by people suddenly going into convulsions, jumping around, and dancing, was also known as:
A) lycanthropy
B) melancholia
C) phlegmatism
D) tarantism*

33.(11) The first physician to specialize in mental illness was:
A) Johann Weyer*
B) William Tuke
C) Benjamin Rush
D) Sigmund Freud

34. (11) Johann Weyer, considered to be the founder of the modern study of psychopathology, was a physician in the:
A) 1200s
B) 1500s*
C) 1700s
D) 1800s

35. (11) In many areas, asylums of the 1500s, such as Bethlehem asylum in London, became:
A) shrines
B) tourist attractions*
C) sheltered workshops
D) centers of moral treatment

36. (11) Treatment for mental illness in crowded asylums tended to be:
A) moral therapy.
B) harsh and cruel*.
C) religiously based.
D) psychogenic therapy.

37. (12) What is the distinction of Bethlehem Hospital, founded in London in 1547?
A) Popularly called “Bedlam,” it came to represent deplorable conditions for patients*
B) It was the first asylum
C) It was founded by Henry VIII as a place to house his numerous ex-wives
D) It was the first asylum where the moral treatment of patients was practice.

38. (13) Male mental patients in the early 1800s probably would have chosen to be institutionalized in:
A) Bethlehem Hospital, London
B) Lunatics' Tower, Vienna
C) La Bicêtre, Paris*
D) Val d'Isère, France

39. (13) The basis for moral treatment of asylum patients was the belief that:
A) mental problems had a biological basis
B) demonology was a cause of mental illness
C) mental illness should be treated with sympathy and kindness*
D) the cause of mental illness was immoral behavior

40. (13) The man who brought about the reforms of moral therapy to northern England was:
A) John Dix
B) Joseph Gall
C) William Tuke*
D) Benjamin Rush

41. (13) The man who brought the reforms of moral therapy to the United States was:
A) John Dix
B) Joseph Gall
C) William Tuk.
D) Benjamin Rush*

42. (13) “'Moral treatment' is the best way to deal with abnormality; even the best of us at some time may break under stress.” Who of the following would agree most strongly with this statement?
A) Henry VIII
B) Emil Kraepelin
C) Philippe Pinel*
D) Friedrich Anton Mesmer

43. (13) The “parent” of American psychiatry, who organized the first course in psychiatry in America, is:
A) Dorothea Dix
B) Benjamin Rush*
C) William Tuke
D) Sigmund Freud

44. (13) The American schoolteacher who lobbied state legislatures for laws to mandate human treatment of people with mental disorders was:
A) William Tuke
B) Dorothea Dix*
C) Clifford Beers
D) Benjamin Rush

45. (13) Which of the following is part of the legacy of Dorothea Dix?
A) deinstitutionalization
B) state mental hospitals*
C) federal prisons
D) privatization of mental hospitals

46. (13) All of the following were advocates of “moral treatment” except for:
A) Dorothea Dix
B) Benjamin Rush
C) William Tuke
D) Sigmund Freud*

47. (14) The “moral treatment” movement rapidly declined in the late nineteenth century because:
A) prejudice against those with mental disorders decreased
B) fewer and fewer immigrants were being sent to mental hospitals
C) all patients needing treatment had been helped
D) hospitals became underfunded and overcrowded*

48. (14) Another term for a cluster of symptoms is:
A) syndrome*
B) somatogenesis
C) psychogenesis
D) general paresis

49. (14) The discovery of the link between general paresis and syphilis was made by:
A) Benjamin Rush
B) Emil Kraepelin
C) Fritz Schaudinn
D) Richard von Krafft-Ebing*

50. (14) The finding that syphilis causes general paresis is important because it supports the idea that:
A) mental patients should be deinstitutionalized
B) organic factors can cause mental illness*
C) antibiotics cannot “cure” viral diseases
D) physicians should be the ones treating mental illnesses

51. (15) The German researcher who argued that physical factors may cause mental dysfunction, and who developed the first modern classification system for abnormal behaviors, was:
A) Richard von Krafft-Ebing
B) Friedrich Anton Mesmer
C) Emil Kraepelin*
D) Fritz Schaudinn

52. (15) The somatogenic treatment for mental illness that seems to have been the most successful was the use of:
A) psychosurgery
B) psychoanalysis
C) various medications*
D) insulin shock therapy

53. (15) Mesmer became famous—or infamous—for his work with patients suffering from bodily problems with no physical basis. His patients' disorders are termed:
A) somatogenic
B) hysterical
C) phlegmatic
D) bilious

54. (16) Which point of view was supported by the discovery that the symptoms of hysteria (e.g., mysterious paralysis) could be induced by hypnosis?
A) psychogenic*
B) somatogenic
C) demonological
D) psychoanalytic

55.(16) The early psychogenic treatment that was advocated by Josef Breuer and Sigmund Freud was:
A) prayer
B) bleedingo
C) hypnotism*
D) trephining

56. (16) Acquiring insight about unconscious psychological processes is a feature of:
A) moral therapy
B) psychoanalysis*
C) psychogenic therapy
D) all psychological therapy.

57. (16) Psychoanalysis is a form of:
A) moral therapy
B) outpatient therapy*
C) behavioral therapy
D) somatogenic therapy

58. (16) Psychoanalysis, as Freud developed it, was a form of what we now would call:
A) Mesmerism
B) outpatient therapy*
C) community psychology
D) Kraepelinism

59. (16) Psychoanalysis is NOT very effective for hospitalized mental patients because:
A) there is not enough time for long-term therapy*
B) the ratio of caretaker to patient is too high
C) patients lack the necessary insight and verbal skills
D) there are not enough patients to form meaningful therapy groups.

60. (16) Regarding the cause of mental disorders, more people today believe that mental illness is caused by which of the following?
A) sinful behavior
B) lack of willpower
C) lack of self-discipline
D) something the person brought on him or herself*

61. (17) Drugs designed to decrease extremely confused and distorted thinking are termed:
A) antidepressants
B) antiolytics
C) antihypochondriacals
D) antipsychotics*

62. (17) Drugs that alleviate the symptoms of mental dysfunction by affecting the brain are called:
A) psychedelics
B) antineurotics
C) psychotropics*
D) psychophysiologicals

63. (17) If your primary symptom were excessive worry, the psychotropic drug for you would be an:
A) antipsychotic
B) antidepressant
C) antiemetic
D) antianxiety medication*

64. (17) The policy of deinstitutionalization forces attention to:
A) group psychotherapy
B) private psychotherapy
C) outpatient psychological services*
D) the conditions in psychiatric facilities

65. (17) People who are not impaired enough to need confinement in a mental hospital but who cannot live on their own sometimes live in supervised homes. This sort of facility is part of:
A) deinstitutionalization
B) private psychotherapy
C) the social welfare approach
D) the community mental health approach*

66. (17) In 1955, 600,000 people were in public mental health institutions in the United States. Since 1955, the number of institutionalized persons has:
A) doubled
B) stayed about the same
C) decreased by about 50 percent*
D) decreased by about 90 percent

67. (17) One cause of the increase in homeless individuals in recent decades has been the:
A) policy of deinstitutionalization
B) use of psychotropic medication
C) decrease in the use of private psychotherapy
D) move to the community mental health approach*

68. (17-18) In the United States today, one is most likely to find a severely ill mental patient:
A) in a mental hospital
B) on the street or in jail*
C) receiving drug counseling in a shelter
D) in private therapy paid for by the state

69. (18) Surveys suggest that about what proportion of adults in the United States receive psychological therapy in a typical year?
A) 1/100
B) 1/15
C) 1/5*
D) 1/1000

70. (18) The fact that hundreds of thousands of people with severe psychological disturbances end up living on the streets or in jails points out one deficiency of:
A) private psychotherapy
B) deinstitutionalization*
C) managed care programs
D) forms of group therapy

Comer 7 Chapter 17 Disorders of Childhood & Adolescence Practice Questions

1. (17,573) A female child is diagnosed with autism. Later, as an adult, she is unable to hold a job and has very limited communication skills. Her case is:
A) very rare; most people diagnosed with autism are males, and their symptoms usually diminish substantially by early adulthood
B) uncommon; most people diagnosed with autism are males, and their symptoms usually remain severe into adulthood
C) uncommon; most people diagnosed with autism are females, and their symptoms usually diminish substantially by early adulthood
D) common; most people diagnosed with autism are females, and their symptoms usually remain severe into adulthood

2. (17,565) Among other things, a diagnosis of ADHD must include a total of at least:
A) 18 symptoms, lasting at least 6 months
B) 12 symptoms, lasting at least 6 months
C) 18 symptoms, lasting at least 12 months
D) 12 symptoms, lasting at least 12 months

3. (17,550) Compared to girls, boys are:
A) less likely to commit suicide
B) more likely to be well adjusted
C) more likely to have a diagnosable psychological disorder
D) somewhat less likely to have a diagnosable psychological disorder

4. (17,563) The least effective way to deal with conduct disorder is:
A) prevention programs
B) teaching children how to deal with their anger
C) having them live in juvenile training centers
D) through family intervention

5. (17,574,D) When a child with autism jumps, flaps her arms, twists her hands and fingers and makes unusual faces, the child is engaging in:
A) self-injurious behavior
B) self-communication behavior
C) self-motor behavior
D) self-stimulatory behavior

6. (17,575) “It is possible, even probable, that 'refrigerator parents'—cold, rejecting, rigid—caused this disorder.” This is a reasonable statement about the cause of many cases of:
A) autism
B) Asperger's disorder
C) both autism and Asperger's disorder
D) neither autism nor Asperger's disorder

7. (17,551) Symptoms of clinginess, sleep difficulties, and stomach pains (behavioral and somatic complaints) are more characteristic of anxiety disorders:
A) that are appropriately treated by psychotropic medications
B) in adolescents rather than in children
C) in children rather than in adults
D) in children of former generations rather than of the present generation

8. (17,557) Boys and girls have about the same percentage chance of being diagnosed with:
A) oppositional defiant disorder if they are prepubertal
B) oppositional defiant disorder if they are postpuberty
C) conduct disorder if they are prepuberty
D) conduct disorder if they are postpuberty

9. (17,581) Biological factors appear not to be the most important causes of which level of mental retardation?
A) profound
B) moderate
C) mild
D) Biological factors are the most important causes of all of these levels of mental retardation.

10. (17,573) The mockingbird gets its name from the fact that it often imitates the call of other birds, without conveying any particular message. A human who imitates others' speech without really communicating most likely would be diagnosed with:
A) autism
B) ADHD
C) mental retardation
D) oppositional defiant disorder

11. (17,562) In effect, parents learn to do behavior therapy with their children diagnosed with conduct disorder—targeting and rewarding desired behaviors, for instance—in an intervention called:
A) parent-interaction therapy
B) video tape modeling
C) parent management training
D) family-consequence sensitization

12. (17,583) If I am a member of the American Association of Mental Retardation, I most likely believe that mental retardation should be diagnosed on the basis of:
A) IQ score
B) level of adaptive functioning
C) neurological functioning
D) level of support needed

13. (17,559) When a child is diagnosed with two disorders, which of the following statements is most strongly supported by research findings?
A) Boys diagnosed with conduct disorder are more likely than girls diagnosed with conduct disorder to also be diagnosed with ADHD
B) Girls diagnosed with conduct disorder are more likely than boys diagnosed with conduct disorder to also be diagnosed with ADHD
C) Depressive symptoms usually occur before conduct-disorder symptoms
D) Conduct-disorder symptoms usually occur before ADHD symptoms

14. (17,561) Conduct disorder has most often been associated with:
A) genetic or hormonal predisposition
B) a history of child abuse
C) poor parent-child relationships
D) poverty

15. (17,563) “Will that program really help? I keep hearing bad things about how kids act once they leave.” Based on research, the person who said this would be most accurate if she or he were expressing reservations about:
A) a juvenile training center
B) treatment foster care
C) problem-solving training
D) an Anger Coping and Coping Power Program

16. (17,562) “My seven-year-old needs to get help for conduct disorder. What do you recommend?” asks a friend. Of the following alternatives, your best answer is:
A) “Video tape modeling works especially well with elementary school children”
B) “Treatment foster care is best, if the program is well-established”
C) “Parent management training should work best”
D) “Parent-child interaction therapy would be my recommendation”

17. (17,555) Which of the following statements supports the conclusion that second generation antidepressants are beneficial (overall) for children?
A) Only 2% to 4% of children who take them have an increased risk of suicidal thoughts and attempts
B) The suicide rate decreased 30% after second generation antidepressants were prescribed for children
C) The FDA requires a “black box” warning about the increased risk of suicide in children on the packages of second generation medications
D) First generation medications actually work better than second generation medications

18. (17,578) Recent work has revealed that the most effective treatment for autism has been the use of:
A) drug therapy
B) behavioral therapy
C) educational therapy
D) psychodynamic-humanistic therapy

19. (17,563) A child is receiving problem-solving skills training as a treatment for conduct disorder. You can be reasonably sure that:
A) stimulant drug (e.g. Ritalin) administration is recommended, but not required
B) the child is a preschooler
C) the child is female
D) the techniques used are cognitive behavioral

20. (17,571) A diagnostician says, “I'm reasonably sure there's a hereditary factor for this disorder, especially since your uncle had the same disorder.” This statement would be least accurate regarding:
A) conduct disorder
B) encopresis
C) enuresis
D) autism

21. (17,572) The child most likely to show the first symptom of autistic disorder would be a:
A) boy under 3 years old
B) girl under 3 years old
C) boy over 5 years old
D) girl over 5 years old

22. (17,565) A child's distracting behaviors occur only in a school setting, and include failure to follow instructions and finish work, answering questions before they have been completed, and a lot of seat squirming and fidgeting. Could ADHD be a diagnosis of this child?
A) Yes, it could be a diagnosis
B) No; the child's symptoms started at too young an age
C) No; the child's symptoms occur in only one setting
D) Yes, it could be, but only if the fidgeting is distracting to others

23. (17,575) A person diagnosed with Asperger's disorder is extremely curious about why other people think what they think, and has zero tolerance for others' occasionally illogical thinking. According to one classification system (with apologies for sexist language), the term for this individual would be:
A) emotion boy
B) rational boy
C) rule boy
D) logic boy

24. (17,550) Surveys show that ______ is a common experience for close to half of all children in the United States.
A) worry
B) depression
C) anxiety
D) substance abuse

25. (17,571) A child is awakened during the night, goes to and uses the toilet, and receives a sticker and praise from a parent. Later in the week, accumulated stickers may be turned in for a highly desired toy. This child is undergoing:
A) dry-bed training for enuresis
B) dry-bed training for encopresis
C) bell-and-battery therapy for enuresis
D) bell-and-battery therapy for encopresis

26. (17,569) Joey has been wetting his bed since he was a baby. He is 10 years old now. As a result, he will not stay over at his friend's house or go to camp. His condition is called:
A) enuresis
B) encopresis
C) conduct disorder
D) noctural emission

27. (17,550) Childhood disorders for which there are no direct adult counterparts are:
A) disruptive disorders
B) anxiety disorders
C) mental retardation
D) elimination disorders

28. (17,575) According to one psychological view of autism, the inability to take another's perspective is not developed in autistic children. This ability is called:
A) egocentrism
B) a theory of mind
C) social awareness
D) metacognitive knowledge

29. (17,567) In terms of Ritalin consumption per person, the greatest increase in Ritalin use in the United States occurred in the:
A) early 1980s
B) late 1980s
C) early 1990s
D) late 1990s

30. (17,562) Among the goals of parent-child interaction therapy are all of the following except:
A) helping parents set realistic goals for their child's behavior
B) teaching the child better social skills
C) giving the parents time off by providing respite care
D) teaching the parents to use fairer discipline practices

31. (17,554) A general disinterest in toys and games in a child, if serious and persistent, would most likely be labeled:
A) avolition
B) anhedonia
C) a somatic complaint
D) impoverished speech

32. (17,581) Intelligence test results should not be the only things used to determine mental retardation, because intelligence test scores:
A) are not positively correlated with school performance
B) lack reliability
C) don't indicate level of adaptive behavior
D) lack validity

33. (17,582) Selina displays normal behavior and intelligence, but she does not seem to be able to explain her actions and intentions as well as you would expect. If the deficit is severe enough, she might be diagnosed with:
A) dyslexia
B) a perceptual deficit
C) attention-deficit/disorder
D) an expressive-language disorder

34. (17,573) Assume that you are alone in a room with a child suffering from a disorder of childhood. If you didn't know what the child's diagnosis was, what behavior of the child's might start to convince you that the disorder is autism?
A) The child argues defiantly with parents
B) The child is not responsive to other people
C) The child screams uncontrollably when separated from parents
D) The child is very active, and finds it difficult to stay on task

35. (17,582) Ian has received the diagnosis of developmental coordination disorder. You would expect that he would have a problem:
A) expressing himself in speech
B) reading a sentence from a book out loud
C) buttoning his shirt and dressing in general
D) listening to a teacher explain how to do a mathematics problem

36. (17,587) Glenda is in a facility for the mentally retarded. She gets up in her apartment, dresses, and goes to the dining room, where she orders breakfast off a menu. She goes to work in a sheltered workshop. At the end of the day she goes home to her apartment and cleans up for dinner. This arrangement is part of:
A) deinstitutionalization
B) a normalization program
C) mainstreaming
D) special education

37. (17,587) Most children with mental retardation live:
A) at home
B) in “normalization” residences
C) in relatively small, county-run institutions
D) in relatively large, state-run institutions

38. (17,569) When asked, a parent says, “Why does my kid have ADHD? I guess it's in the genes.” Given this very limited information, your research-based guess would be that the parent is:
A) African American, and more likely than most to seek treatment for the child
B) white American, and more likely than most to seek treatment for the child
C) African American, and less likely than most to seek treatment for the child
D) white American, and less likely than most to seek treatment for the child

39. (17,577) A therapist works with an autistic child, providing praise and a small spoonful of ice cream whenever the child imitates a specific sound the therapist makes. The therapist is using what type of therapy?
A) communication training
B) community integration
C) behavioral therapy
D) play therapy (a form of psychodynamic therapy)

40. (17,580) Fred has an IQ of 65 and cannot do school work. He lives on the streets by begging, is usually dirty, and is always hungry. He would probably be labeled:
A) normal
B) dyslexic
C) schizophrenic
D) mentally retarded

Comer 7 Chapter 17 Quiz 1 (added Spring 2012)

1. (p. 563) Which treatment approach is more likely to strengthen juvenile delinquent behavior than to help reduce it?
A. drug therapy
B. institutionalization
C. family therapy
D. individual therapy
2. (p. 587) In ___________, people with mental retardation are grouped together in a separate, specially designated educational program.
A. mainstreaming
B. normalization
C. institutionalization
D. special education
3. (p. 580) Which is the most correct statement about IQ scores?
A. Intelligence tests are not socioculturally biased
B. IQ tests always measure intelligence accurately and objectively
C. IQ scores have a high correlation with school performance
D. IQ tests only measure one aspect of intelligence
4. (p. 558) When children reach school age, therapists often use a family intervention called parent management training to help treat which problem?
A. conduct disorder
B. autism
C. ADHD
D. encopresis
5. (p. 560) What is the most accurate statement about child sexual abuse?
A. It is more common among poor parents
B. Girls and boys are sexually abused at approximately the same rate
C. Child sexual abuse appears to be equally common across all socioeconomic classes, races, and ethnic groups
D. Child sexual abuse occurs only inside the home
6. (p. 558) At what age does conduct disorder usually appear?
A. between the ages of 6 and 10
B. between the ages of 3 and 5
C. between the ages of 7 and 15
D. between the ages of 15 and 18
7. (p. 559) According to a Kaiser Family Foundation survey investigating which issues in school are of concern to 8 to 15 year old children, which of the following ranked the highest?
A. discrimination
B. bullying
C. peer pressure to use drugs or alcohol
D. looking differently from others
8. (p. 566-568) Which two treatment modalities are most widely used for ADHD?
A. drugs and cognitive therapy
B. drugs and family therapy
C. family therapy and behavioral therapy
D. drugs and behavioral therapy

9. (p. 566) Which would lead to the most reliable diagnosis of ADHD? brain imaging and bone density tests
A. blood tests and MRI scans
B. parent and teacher reports, clinical observations, observations, interviews, C. psychological tests, and physical exams
D. psychoneurological exams and PET scans
10. (p. 569) Repeated involuntary bedwetting is known as:
A. encopresis
B. conduct disorder
C. paresis
D. enuresis

11. (p. 573) What percentage of children with autism are boys? Not c,d
A. 95
B. 80
C. 50
D. 35

12. (p. 573-4) Which is not one of the broad categories of autistic symptoms?
A. lack of responsiveness
B. communication problems
C. repetitive and rigid behaviors
D. delinquent-type behaviors

13. (p. 565) About ___ percent of children diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder are boys.
A. 50
B. 90
C. 75
D. 35

14. (p. 550) Which two theorists are associated with a stage theory of human development?
A. Freud and Bronfenbrenner
B. Freud and Jung
C. Freud and Erikson
D. Erikson and Skinner
15. (p. 573) The repetition of phrases spoken by others is known as:
A. word salad
B. pronominal reversal
C. echolalia
D. encopresis

16. (17,574) When Mark, who suffers from autistic disorder, was hungry he looked at his mother and asked Do you want dinner? This reversal of pronouns is referred to as:
A. pronominal reversal
B. inversion of references
C. delayed echolalia
D. verbal stereotypy

17. (p. 584) Which of the following abnormal chromosomal situations does not cause Down syndrome?
A. Trisomy 21
B. Mosaicism
C. Fragile X syndrome
D. Translocation
18. (p. 557) As boys and girls get older, the rates of both noncompliant and aggressive behaviors tend to:
A. increase
B. drop
C. stay the same
D. increase for boys but decrease for girls
19. (p. 558) If a child with conduct disorder displays openly aggressive and confrontational behaviors, which pattern of the disorder would that child be displaying?
A. overt-destructive
B. overt-nondestructive
C. covert destructive
D. covert-nondestructive
20. (p. 560) Children who suffer some form of abuse are most likely to be abused by:
A. a stranger
B. a sibling
C. a parent
D. a teacher

Comer (7) Chapter 3: Models of Abnormality
Practice Questions

The following questions have been selected from the author’s test bank for Abnormal Psychology. Every question on the midterm exam or the final exam concerning this chapter will be selected from the following list.

NOTE: The number in parentheses before the question is the page number in the textbook where the answer can be found. If you wish to have the key for this set of questions send me an e-mail with your proposed answers in accordance with the schedule provided under the heading “To Obtain Answer Keys” on this web site. Be sure to specify the chapter number for which you are seeking the key. I will send you the key in response.

1. (50) The model of abnormality that cites physical processes as being the key to behavior is the:
A) biological model
B) sociocultural model
C) psychodynamic model
D) humanistic-existential model

2. (67) Henry goes into a fit of depression and self-abuse when anyone criticizes or expresses disapproval. Much of what he does is for the purpose of getting people to like him. Cognitive theorists would say that Henry's depression results in large part from:
A) modeling
B) self-efficacy
C) illogical thinking
D) unconscious feelings of loss

3. (50) The model of abnormality that focuses on unconscious internal processes and conflicts in behavior is the:
A) cognitive model
B) behavioral model
C) sociocultural model
D) psychodynamic model

4. (66) If you believe that you can master and perform needed behaviors whenever necessary, Bandura would say that you had a positive sense of:
A) overgeneralization
B) classical conditioning
C) self-efficacy
D) modeling

5. (50)The model of abnormality that focuses on the role of values and choices in behavior is the:
A) cognitive model
B) sociocultural model
C) psychodynamic model
D) humanistic-existential model

6. (55) Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is used most often in the treatment of:
A) schizophrenia
B) anxiety disorders
C) depression
D) bipolar disorder

7. (71)When clients are freed from the insecurities and doubts that prevent self-actualization, they are said to be exhibiting which of the following?
A) experiencing
B) conditions of worth
C) resistance
D) free association

8. (70)The social upheaval and soul searching of the 1960s and 1970s in Western society gave rise to which of the following approaches to therapy?
A) psychodynamic
B) humanist and existential
C) behavioral
D) cognitive

9. (55)People suffering from clinical depression are most likely to benefit from which of the following medications?
A) Risperdal
B) Haldol
C) Zoloft
D) lithium

10. (73)Which of the following would be most likely to use skillful frustration as a part of therapy?
A) Fritz Perls
B) Joseph Wolpe
C) Abraham Maslow
D) Karen Horney

11. (57)Mara's mother is taking a chocolate pudding out of the refrigerator. Which of the following would suggest most strongly that the ego is successfully managing the id?
A) Mara asks for some pudding in a whiney voice and throws a tantrum when she is denied
B) Mara dreams about eating some of the delicious-looking pudding
C) Mara waits for her mother to leave the room, takes a cup of pudding, and sneaks away
D) Mara reaches right in and grabs some pudding, without asking or waiting for her mother to leav.

12. (72)If you were using ELIZA, what would you be doing?
A) playing a video game designed to teach you healthy cognitive skills
B) trying to recognize faces portraying various emotions
C) writing a computer program to manage therapy research
D) talking to a computer programmed to respond with a client-centered approach

13. (76) Which model of abnormality would focus on factors such as norms, family structure and support systems, in particular?
A) behavioral
B) cognitive-behavioral
C) gestalt
D) sociocultural

14. (69)A therapist who believes people often hide from their responsibilities, and therefore often feel alienated, depressed, inauthentic—empty—would most likely be:
A) humanistic
B) existential
C) psychodynamic
D) cognitive

15. (67) The form of therapy that helps clients recognize errors in logic, and try out new interpretations of events is:
A) psychodynamic
B) Gestalt
C) cognitive
D) humanistic

16. (62) Evidence that supports the effectiveness of psychodynamic therapies has come from:
A) longitudinal experimental studies
B) individual case studies
C) controlled correlational studies
D) carefully controlled experiments

17. (52)If a person had schizophrenia, one would suspect a problem with which of these neurotransmitters?
A) gamma-aminobutyric acid
B) dopamine
C) serotonin
D) norepinephrine

18. (73)“You can do anything you want. You can lead a perfectly useless life. It is all up to you.” A therapist who would say these frustrating statements as a primary part of the therapy process would follow the ______ tradition.
A) cognitive
B) existential
C) humanistic
D) psychodynamic

19. (73)Therapists who often deliberately frustrate and challenge their clients, and who often use role playing and a “here and now” orientation, are:
A) gestalt
B) neo-Freudian
C) cognitive-behavioral
D) humanistic

20. (67)If a patient is being guided to challenge irrational thinking and to try out new interpretations, the patient is most likely being treated by a follower of:
A) Beck
B) Freud
C) Bandura
D) Wolpe

21. (65) Systematic desensitization has been shown to be especially effective in the treatment of:
A) bipolar disorders
B) schizophrenia
C) phobias
D) substance abuse disorders

22. (69) “When we try to establish how abnormality develops, we need to consider how individuals deal with the meaning of life, and with the value they find in living.” A psychologist from which background would agree most strongly with this statement?
A) cognitive-behavioral
B) humanistic-existential
C) psychodynamic
D) cognitive

23. (50)Imagine that you subscribe to the sociocultural model of abnormality. Which of the following would be a part of your paradigm?
A) the humanistic-existential model
B) the family-social perspective
C) the cognitive model
D) the psychodynamic model

24. (58) A woman has had an abortion for which she feels very guilty and as a result takes a strong pro-life stance. The defense mechanism that best explains her behavior is:
A) reaction formation
B) denial
C) regression
D) projection

25. (52) Depression has been linked to which neurotransmitter abnormality?
A) low activity of GABA
B) absence of dopamine
C) low activity of serotonin
D) excessive activity of norepinephrine

26. (85) Combining any two or more treatment techniques results in an approach is called:
A) eclectic
B) reciprocal
C) couple therapy
D) group therapy

27. (77) If a mother seems excessively involved in her child's life such that they do not seem to be independent people, their relationship is said to be:
A) externalized
B) cultural
C) enmeshed
D) disengaged

28. (56) Freud believed that the three central forces that shape the personality were the:
A) instincts, the ego, and the self
B) biological forces, culture, and learning
C) consciousness, unconsciousness, and instincts
D) instinctual needs, rational thinking, and moral standards

29. (82) Which of the following explanations for the higher levels of anorexia nervosa in Western cultures is consistent with a multicultural model?
A) Thin people are subject to prejudice and discrimination in hiring
B) The standards for male body types are more limited than for female body types
C) The media set an unreasonably small ideal body type for women
D) Obesity levels are rising among school children

30. (55) Which of the following is an antipsychotic drug?
A) Valium
B) Zoloft
C) Risperdal
D) lithium

31. (50) The paradigm or model adopted by people in the Middle Ages to explain abnormal behavior would have been:
A) sociocultural
B) biological
C) cognitive
D) demonological

32. (50) The model of abnormality that examines the effects of society and culture is the:
A) behavioral model
B) sociocultural model
C) psychodynamic model
D) humanistic-existential model

33. (84) Which of the following statements is the best example of the biopsychosocial perspective?
A) There is one legitimate approach to understanding mental disorders
B) Abnormality is best explained by sociocultural stresses a person experiences
C) Eclectic approaches fail to take interactions of various models into account
D) Abnormality results from the interaction of genetic, emotional, and cultural influences

34. (75) The model of abnormality that pays particular attention to a client's family structure, societal norms, and a client's roles in society is:
A) existential
B) cognitive-behavioral
C) sociocultural
D) humanistic

35. (51) According to the analogy used in your textbook, the amygdala is most like a:
A) state
B) continent
C) country
D) hemisphere

36. (59) The motivation to form relationships with others is a central theme of:
A) ego theory
B) self theory
C) psychoanalytic theory
D) object relations theory

37. (65) The first step in using the treatment called “systematic desensitization” is to:
A) construct a fear hierarchy
B) construct a list of useful reinforcers
C) confront the client with the feared stimulus or thought
D) teach the skill of relaxation over the course of several sessions

38. (76) David Rosenhan sent “pseudopatients” to a mental hospital where they pretended to be disturbed. The results led him to conclude that ______ greatly impacts mental illness.
A) an actual symptom
B) the community mental health system
C) labeling
D) communication

39. (54) A person reports experiencing tension and anxiety, but not mood swings. If a drug is prescribed as part of the treatment, the drug most likely would be:
A) Prozac
B) Risperdal
C) lithium
D) Xanax

40. (63) Theory focused on learned responses to the environment is usually described as:
A) psychoanalytic
B) behavioral
C) sociocultural
D) psychodynamic

41. (50) The model of abnormality that concentrates on thinking is the:
A) cognitive model
B) behavioral model
C) sociocultural model
D) psychodynamic model

42. (71) The term for the form of psychotherapy pioneered by Carl Rogers is:
A) client-centered
B) insight
C) Gestalt
D) existential

43. (82) Current multicultural perspectives are most likely to focus on:
A) the inferiority of particular cultural groups
B) the cultural deprivation that is characteristic of some groups
C) the limitations of a focus on ethnicity
D) the special external pressures faced by members of a culture

44. (80) If a therapist advised you to pay attention to how you were communicating with family members and to change harmful patterns, the therapist would most likely be practicing:
A) structural family therapy
B) conjoint family therapy
C) feminist therapy
D) self-help therapy

45. (64) When a young child yells and throws toys (“temper tantrum”), the parents give the child a good deal of attention. As time goes on, the temper tantrums become more and more common. A behavioral psychologist would say that the temper tantrums result from:
A) unresolved intrapsychic conflict
B) operant conditioning
C) unconditional positive regard
D) neurotransmitter imbalances

46. (64) A previously neutral environmental event that becomes associated with the unconditioned stimulus is called a(n):
A) learned stimulus
B) conditioned stimulus
C) unconditioned stimulus
D) discriminative stimulus

47. (53) In how many cases of psychological disorders have psychologists identified an individual gene that appears to be responsible?
A) virtually all
B) most but not all
C) about half
D) virtually none

48. (53) One who takes an evolutionary perspective with respect to abnormal behavior would be most likely to agree that:
A) genome mapping is a waste of time
B) the evolution of adaptive and maladaptive behavior is fundamentally different
C) at one time what is now often seen as abnormal helped us survive
D) people can inherit physical but not mental capacities

49. (85) Imagine that a man inherits the tendency to be socially awkward. That leads him to choose inappropriate romantic partners who increase his level of stress. A biopsychosocial therapist would use the ______ effects explanation of his functioning.
A) cognitive
B) cultural
C) reciprocal
D) deterministic

50. (60) A patient participates in weekly therapy for several years, gradually becoming aware of the impact of early life events on present functioning. The form of psychotherapy the patient is receiving is called:
A) cognitive therapy
B) drug therapy
C) psychodynamic therapy
D) behavior therapy

Comer (7) Chapter 4: Clinical Assessment, Diagnosis and Treatment
Practice Questions

The following questions have been selected from the author’s test bank for Abnormal Psychology. Every question on the midterm exam or the final exam concerning this chapter will be selected from the following list.

NOTE: The number in parentheses before the question is the page number in the textbook where the answer can be found. If you wish to have the key for this set of questions send me an e-mail with your proposed answers in accordance with the schedule provided under the heading “To Obtain Answer Keys” on this web site. Be sure to specify the chapter number for which you are seeking the key. I will send you the key in response.

1. (108)Axis III includes:
A) long-standing problems
B) any relevant general medical condition
C) any relevant psychosocial or environmental problem
D) vivid clinical syndromes that typically cause significant impairment

2. (118)The biggest social threat to the use of comprehensive assessment techniques today is:
A) concern about the cultural bias in tests
B) concern about the gender bias in tests
C) concern about low reliability and validity
D) concern about cost—expressed by managed care companies

3. (100)How does an MRI make a picture of the brain?
A) It measures the degree of activity in the various areas scanned
B) It uses X-rays, and pictures are taken at several different angles
C) It relies on the magnetic properties of the atoms in the cells scanned
D) It uses a recording of the electrical impulses produced by the neurons in the brain

4. (117)The single most effective treatment for schizophrenia is:
A) drug therapy
B) behavior therapy
C) psychoanalysis
D) existential therapy

5. (89)The process of evaluating a person's progress after being in treatment is called a:
A) nomothetic approach
B) clinical assessment
C) behavioral diagnosis
D) functional analysis

6. (98)Which of the following tests is likely to have the lowest reliability?
A) the MMPI
B) the Draw-a-Person Test
C) a social skills inventory
D) the Beck Depression Inventory

7. (90)If you were part of a standardization sample, you could expect to:
A) have your scores used as norms for a new test
B) be asked to judge how well others did on a test
C) take a test that had questionable face validity
D) be unique, not representative of the population of interest

8. (98)A response inventory that asks individuals to provide detailed information about their typical thoughts and assumptions is a(n):
A) social skill inventory
B) cognitive inventory
C) affective inventory
D) behavioral inventory

9. (90)A new test for anxiety shows consistent levels of anxiety across time for people, but very few people have taken the test, and accurate norms don't exist. The test has:
A) high reliability, but inadequate standardization
B) high reliability, and adequate standardization
C) low reliability, and inadequate standardization
D) low reliability, but adequate standardization

10. (98) A person taking a polygraph test is suspected of lying when measures of physiological variables are:
A) higher for control than test questions
B) higher for test than control questions
C) evenly high for test and control questions
D) unchanging for test and control questions

11. (95)If a person responds to a TAT card by relating to the main character and applying his or her own concerns, the person is said to be identifying with the:
A) theme.
B) pathology
C) hero
D) ideal

12. (115-116)If you ask the question, “What type of therapy has been shown to be the most effective for my particular disorder?” you are asking a question about:
A) diagnosis reliability studies
B) therapy outcome studies
C) classification syndrome studies
D) ethics of treatment studies

13. (103)Under the instructions of a psychologist, Tina's mother records the number of times Tina hits her brother at home, and what happens immediately prior to the hitting. In this situation, Tina's mother is:
A) a participant observer
B) demonstrating observer bias
C) conducting structured observations
D) engaging in self-monitoring behavior

14. (108) A high school bully constantly ignores others' rights, and appears not even to realize that others do have rights A likely DSM-IV-TR partial diagnosis for this bully would be:
A) a GAF of 60 on Axis II
B) a GAF of 60 on Axis III
C) antisocial personality disorder on Axis II
D) antisocial personality disorder on Axis III

15. (96)Which of the following statements about the use of projective techniques by today's clinicians is true?
A) Projective tests are not used any more
B) The centrality of projective tests has declined since their introduction
C) Current clinicians rely on projective tests as a primary source of insight about their patients
D) Projective tests have a more prominent place in the clinician's repertoire than they did 50 years ago

16. (103) Imagine that you know you are being observed and change your behavior in order to make a good impression. This is known as:
A) observer drift
B) observer bias
C) reactivity
D) naturalistic change

17. (94) The only test among the following that is not a projective test is the:
A) Rorschach Test
B) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory
C) Draw-a-Person Test
D) Thematic Apperception Test

18. (100)If your friend had her brain waves recorded in order to measure electrical activity, she most likely had a(n):
A) PET scan
B) MRI
C) CAT scan
D) EEG

19. (91)Clinical interviews are the preferred assessment technique of many practitioners. One particular strength of the interview process is:
A) validity
B) the reliability of the technique
C) the chance to get a general sense of the client
D) that it asks only open-ended questions

20. (90) A clinician gathers data about what things might be reinforcing to someone's abnormal behavior. This variety of assessment is called:
A) psychodynamic
B) behavioral
C) structured
D) free-form

21. (90) An interviewer who asks a client questions such as “Where are you now?” “Why do you think you're here?” or even “Who are you?” is probably conducting a(n):
A) mental status exam
B) behavioral interview
C) sociocultural interview
D) intelligence test

22. (97) Of the following, who is most at risk for misinterpreting a cultural response as pathology?
A) an immigrant client
B) an ethnic-minority client
C) a dominant-culture assessor
D) an ethnic-minority assessor

23. (92) Dr Martin has just asked a potential client to talk about herself. After she responds, the doctor's next question is based on some interesting point she brought up. There are few constraints on the conversation Dr Martin has just:
A) used free association
B) conducted an unstructured interview
C) used a behavioral assessment technique
D) employed (Rogers's) nondirective therapy

24. (103) The most legitimate criticism of intelligence tests concerns their:
A) validity
B) cultural fairness
C) reliability
D) standardization

25. (89) The major focus of a clinical practitioner when dealing with a new client is to gather what type of information?
A) diagnostic
B) nomothetic
C) idiographic
D) dispassionate

26. (113) Therapies that have received clear research support are called:
A) meta-analyses
B) idiographic
C) evidence-based
D) outcome complex

27. (95) If a clinician focused on where you placed your drawing on the page, the size of the drawing, and the parts you omitted, you most likely took which of the following tests?
A) Rorschach
B) TAT
C) MMPI
D) Draw-a-Person

28. (117) Which of the following is the best conclusion you could draw about the effectiveness of the various assessment techniques?
A) There is one standard assessment battery used by all clinicians
B) When all is said and done, no technique stands out as superior
C) Clinicians have abandoned the use of assessment
D) Assessment is used at the beginning of therapy but not thereafter

29. (105) Deciding that a client's psychological problems represent a particular disorder is called:
A) psychotherapy
B) assessment
C) diagnosis
D) triage

30. (103) A student who is quiet in class might be the life of the party on the weekend. Clinical observation of that student in class would lack:
A) observer bias
B) external validity
C) reactivity
D) an analog

31. (108) The DSM-IV-TR divides the categories along five separate axes. The Axis I disorders are disorders:
A) that relate to a person's general level of functioning
B) related to physiological ailments from which the person is currently suffering
C) that cause significant impairment
D) that are long-standing and usually begin in childhood or adolescence, persisting in stable form into adult life

32. (116) Standardizing and combining the findings of many different studies is called:
A) outcome study
B) rapprochement
C) eclecticism
D) meta-analysis

33. (108) Which of the following would appear on Axis 4?
A) mental retardation
B) being homeless
C) having cancer
D) having a GAF score of 60

34. (101) If it were necessary to get the clearest and most accurate picture of the physical anatomy and function of the brain in order to aid in the diagnosis of a psychological disorder, the method of choice would be:
A) MMPI-2
B) fMRI
C) DAP
D) PET

35. (96) The test that reports one's results on clinical scales such as “hypochondriasis” (HS) and “Psychopathic deviate” (PD) is the:
A) Sentence-Completion Test
B) Thematic Apperception Test
C) Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test
D) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory

36. (91) A test is constructed to identify people who will develop schizophrenia. Of the 100 people the test identifies, 93 show signs of schizophrenia within five years The test may be said to have high:
A) internal reliability
B) predictive validity
C) concurrent validity
D) test-retest reliability

37. (92) If a clinician is particularly interested in a client's family background and community influences, that clinician is most likely from which orientation?
A) biological
B) behavioral
C) sociocultural
D) cognitive

38. (94) The assumption behind the use of projective tests as assessment tools is that:
A) they are relatively easy to score
B) the responses come from the client's unconscious
C) they stimulate abnormal behaviors that the clinician can observe
D) patient responses to specific stimuli will uncover specific disorders

39. (106) Symptoms such as sadness, loss of appetite, and low energy cluster together to form a:
A) treatment
B) classification system
C) syndrome
D) medical condition

40. (117) Which of the following would be most likely to have been in therapy at some point in their lives?
A) men with a high school education
B) elderly people from the Northeast
C) women with a postgraduate education
D) young adults from the South

41. (108) Under what axis do long-standing personality problems fall in DSM-IV-TR?
A) Axis III
B) Axis II
C) Axis IV
D) Axis V

42. (92) A clinical interviewer says, in part, “How do you feel about yourself today? How do you feel about what's going on in your life?” Most likely, that clinical interviewer's orientation is:
A) biological
B) behavioral
C) psychodynamic
D) humanistic

43. (101) When a person has organic brain impairment, that person would most likely have difficulty completing:
A) a CAT scan
B) an EEG
C) the Bender-Gestalt test
D) an MRI

44. (98) An inventory that asks about one's level of anxiety, depression, and anger is a(n) ______ inventory:
A) cognitive
B) affective
C) social skills
D) functional

45. (98) The MMPI-2 is considered by many to be superior to the original MMPI because the MMPI-2:
A) was tested on a more diverse group of people
B) produces results that are not comparable to the results of the original MMPI
C) has fewer items
D) produces only one score

46. (97) Youssef is the kind of person who breaks laws and rules with no feeling of guilt and is emotionally shallow He would probably score high on the MMPI-2 scale called:
A) paranoia
B) schizophrenia
C) psychasthenia
D) psychopathic deviate

47. (102) A person with a mental age of 10 and a chronological age of 8 has an IQ of:
A) 125
B) 80
C) 150
D) 40

48. (109) If you received the diagnoses of both social phobia and agoraphobia, your diagnoses would be:
A) comorbid
B) field tested
C) more reliable
D) valid only if you were an adolescent

49. (96) Which of the following tests is a personality inventory?
A) Draw-a-Person
B) MMPI-2
C) Rorschach Test
D) Thematic Apperception Test

50. (108) Mental retardation is found in ______ of DSM-IV-TR.
A) Axis I
B) Axis II
C) Axis III
D) Axis IV

Comer (7) Chapter 5: Anxiety Disorders
Practice Questions

The following questions have been selected from the author’s test bank for Abnormal Psychology. Every question on the midterm exam or the final exam concerning this chapter will be selected from the following list.

NOTE: The number in parentheses before the question is the page number in the textbook where the answer can be found. If you wish to have the key for this set of questions send me an e-mail with your proposed answers in accordance with the schedule provided under the heading “To Obtain Answer Keys” on this web site. Be sure to specify the chapter number for which you are seeking the key. I will send you the key in response.

1. (126)How strong is the evidence supporting the usefulness of client-centered therapy for those with generalized anxiety disorder?
A) not very strong: case reports of client-centered therapy's usefulness are not strongly supported by controlled studies
B) not very strong: controlled studies of client-centered therapy's usefulness are not strongly supported by case reports
C) very strong in both case reports and controlled studies
D) very weak in both case reports and controlled studies

2. (133)Which of the following statement is the most accurate regarding the usefulness of biofeedback in treating generalized anxiety disorder?
A) It is best to use biofeedback in combination with a cognitive therapy.
B) It is as good as any other therapy.
C) A placebo treatment works just as well.
D) It may take several months of pretraining to prepare.

3. (143)Rosa's heart was racing from the 4 cups of coffee she had just finished, but she thought she might be having a heart attack. Her fear seemed to be increasing without end. This might be the beginning of a:
A) panic attack
B) manic episode
C) specific phobia
D) social phobia

4. (135)Steve is afraid of eating in public, expecting to be judged negatively and to feel humiliated. As a result, he always makes up excuses when asked out to eat. He would most likely be diagnosed with:
A) a social phobia
B) a specific phobia
C) generalized anxiety disorder
D) posttraumatic stress disorder

5. (131)Which of the following statements is most accurate?
A) Long-term anxiety is related to poor GABA reception
B) Long-term anxiety causes poor GABA reception
C) Poor GABA reception causes long-term anxiety
D) Neurotransmitter deficiencies cause long-term anxiety and poor GABA reception

6. (143)A person who experiences unpredictable panic attacks combined with dysfunctional behavior and thoughts is probably experiencing:
A) typical panic attacks
B) panic disorder
C) physiological damage
D) a normal response to stress

7. (124)According to Freud, children who are prevented from expressing id impulses—making mud pies, playing war, and exploring their genitals—are at risk for developing:
A) realistic anxiety
B) neurotic anxiety
C) moral anxiety
D) existential anxiety

8. (125)If you criticized everything you did, looking for flaws, and never could measure up to your personal standards, you would be exhibiting what Rogers called:
A) empathy
B) unconditioned positive regard
C) conditions of worth
D) moral anxiety

9. (132)Which of the following is a nondrug biological treatment for anxiety that is in general use today?
A) psychoanalysis
B) relaxation therapy
C) behavior modification
D) rational-emotive therapy

10. (150)Which of the following reflects the most common obsessive thought?
A) If I touch that doorknob, I will be dirty and contaminated
B) I must make sure that the brochures are folded evenly
C) I can hardly stop myself from yelling sexual obscenities in class
D) I hope that person dies a long, slow death

11. (148) Imagine that researchers investigating panic disorder gave you a drug that caused you to hyperventilate and your heart to beat rapidly. You would have been given a(n):
A) in vivo test
B) modeling test
C) covert sensitization test
D) biological challenge test

12. (134)In order to determine if a person's fear of snakes is severe enough to be categorized as a phobia, you could:
A) show him a snake; if he appears to be very uncomfortable, he most likely has a phobia
B) show him a snake; if he appears to be very uncomfortable, he most likely has a fear
C) ask him if anxiety about snakes interferes with daily living; if he says “yes,” he most likely has a phobia
D) ask him if anxiety about snakes interferes with daily living; if he says “yes,” he most likely has a fear

13. (148)Which of the following therapies is an effective long-term, nonpharmacolo