Biology 101 Final

Biology 101

FINAL EXAMINATION Spring, 2013

Name: Gabriel Euzebio

Date: May 10, 2013

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS: This final exam is worth 100 points.

There are three sections. The Multiple Choice section has 50 questions worth 1 point each, for a total of 50 points. The Fill-In The Blanks section has 10 questions worth 1 point each, for a total of 10 points. For the Short Answer section, you must choose to answer 8 of the 12 questions, and each question is worth 5 points, for a total of 40 points. For the Laboratory Short Answer section, you must choose to answer 5 of the 9 questions, and each question is worth 10 points, for a total of 50 points.

Multiple Choice:

Answer ALL of the questions in this section of the exam. Indicate your answer by highlighting your choice. Each question is worth 1 point.

1. What is biology?

A) The study of life
B) The study of the environment
C) The study of DNA
D) The study of genetics
E) The study of the earth

2. Which of the following can be considered definitions of "theory"?

A) A theory can be an explanation of scientific laws.
B) A theory is an integrated explanation of numerous hypotheses, each supported by a large body of observations.
C) A theory is a condensation and simplification of many data that previously appeared unrelated.
D) A theory is a prediction for new data suggesting new relationships among a range of natural phenomena.
E) All of the above.

3. An integrated explanation of numerous hypotheses is known as a ____.
A) fact B) law C) control D) theory E) guess

4. What is the correct sequence of steps in the scientific method? I. State a problem II. Analyze and interpret data III. Develop a hypothesis IV. Share the results with other scientists V. Design and perform experiment to test the hypothesis
A) I – II -III -IV – V B) III – I -V– II –IV C) V – IV –III – II – I
D) I – III – V– II – IV E) V – II –I – III -IV

5. To test a hypothesis about a given variable, experimental and control groups are tested in parallel. Which of the following best explains the dual experiments? A) In the experimental group, a chosen variable is altered in a known way. In the control group, that chosen variable is not altered so a comparison can be made. B) In the control group, a chosen variable is altered in a known way. In the experimental group, that chosen variable is not altered so a comparison can be made. C) In the experimental group, a chosen variable plus all other variables are altered. In the control group, the chosen variable is altered; however, all other variables are held constant. D) In the experimental and control groups, two different variables are altered. E) Experimental and control groups experiments are identical and run in parallel to get repeatable results.

6. The smallest unit of life is the A) cell B) organelle C) macromolecule D) atom

7. You examine a cell under a microscope and you do not see a well defined nucleus. You conclude the cell must a _____________________ cell.
A) prokaryotic B) eukaryotic C) plant D) animal

8. All of the following are examples of elements except? A) oxygen B) water C) hydrogen D) carbon

9. Two atoms with the same atomic number, but different mass numbers are called_________. A) radioactive B) isotopes C) proteins D) electrons E) nuclei

10. Select the element that is not one of the four most common elements in living matter. A) carbon B) hydrogen C) nitrogen D) oxygen E) phosphorous

11. Organic compounds consist mainly of ________ atoms. A) oxygen B) nitrogen C) calcium D) carbon E) phosphorous

12. A substance with a pH greater than 7 is ___, while a substance with a pH less than 7 is___. A) basic, acidic B) acidic, basic C) basic, neutral D) neutral, acidic E) neutral, basic

13. The bond in which 2 atoms share one or more pairs of electrons is a ______________ bond. A) polar B) hydrogen C) ionic D) covalent

14. The energy required for photosynthesis is provided by? A) proteins B) sunlight C) chlorophyll D) carbohydrates E) lipids

15. The term below that includes the other terms is A) atom B) molecule C) electron D) element

16. An element has 43 protons and 50 neutrons. The atomic number of the element is A) 43 B) 50 C) 86 D) 93 E) 100

17. The diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane is called ______. A) facilitated diffusion B) active transport C) osmosis D) phagocytosis E) endocytosis

18. A dog gets many nutrients from its food including amino acids. Which of these can be built directly using the amino acids? A) proteins B) carbohydrates C) lipids D) nucleic acids E) glucose

19. Most carbohydrates in the human body are ___________________________. A) used as building blocks for proteins B) used as catalysts for reactions in cells C) consumed as a source of energy D) not easily absorbed into the bloodstream E) not necessary for regular bodily functions

20. A scientist removed the plasma membranes from bacteria cells in a culture. She analyzed the cell membranes for specific molecules. Which of these was probably the most common type of molecule present in the bacteria plasma membranes? A) carbohydrate B) nucleic acid C) amino acid D) lipid E) ATP

21. The site of protein synthesis in the cell is ___________________________. A) the mitochondria B) the nucleus C) the Golgi apparatus D) the ribosomes

22. Cyanide is a poison that prevents mitochondria from using oxygen. As a result, the mitochondria cannot produce A) lipids B) proteins C) energy D) sugars E) nucleic acids

23. The replication of DNA ___________________________________________. A) produces RNA molecules B) produces completely new strands of DNA C) produces two DNA molecules, each of which is half-"new" and half-"old" DNA D) generates excessive DNA, which eventually causes the nucleus to divide

24. The form of RNA that is complementary to DNA and carries the code from the DNA to the site where the protein is synthesized is
A) messenger RNA B) nuclear RNA C) ribosomal RNA D) transfer RNA

25. If the amounts of bases in a DNA molecule are measured, you would find that
A) A = C and G=T
B) A = G and C=T
C) T = A and C =G
D) A = U and C=G
E) U = Cand A =G

26. In humans, the allele for dimples (D) is dominant.The allele for not having dimples (d) is recessive. If a woman (DD) and a man (Dd) have four children, how many of the children will not have dimples? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4

27. Which of these statements best explains how genes and proteins are related?
A) Genes are segments of DNA that code for proteins.
B) Proteins are segments of DNA that code for genes.
C) Genes are segments of proteins that code for DNA.
D) Proteins are the building blocks of genes.
E) Genes are the building blocks of proteins.

28. Which of the following could not be a sequence of RNA?

A) GCGUUU B) UAUGCG C) ATGCGT D) AUGCGU E) AAACUG

29. Information stored in DNA is transferred from the nucleus to the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells in the form of

A) lipids B) DNA C) RNA D) proteins E) carbohydrates

30. Researchers are studying slider turtles. Slider turtles hatch on the beach and travel to the sea. The researchers discover that the larger baby turtles were more likely to survive than the smaller baby turtles. They hypothesized that the larger turtles could move more quickly toward the water than the smaller turtles, and therefore, the larger turtles reduced their exposure to predators. The survival advantage for the larger baby turtles is a result of ______.

A) natural selection B) genetic engineering C) diversity D) artificial selection
E) migration

31. The theory of natural selection states that
A) some live and some die in each generation.
B) only the largest and strongest survive.
C) random assortment of genes results in better characteristics in the following generations.
D) the best adapted individuals survive and reproduce, contributing the most genes to the next generation.
E) individuals that mutate in response to their environment will survive.

32. Inheritable mutations, which may allow a population to evolve, are produced
A) by chance
B) as a response to environmental
C) as a response to selection pressure
D) by natural selection
E) by artificial selection

33. When a biologist studies the way organisms interact with each other and with their environment, they are studying their____________________.

A) physiology
B) anatomy
C) chemistry
D) genetics
E) ecology

34. In a deciduous oak forest of the American northeast, one example of an abiotic component of the ecosystem would be ____________________________.
A) worms in the soil that feed on plant roots
B) worms in the soil that feed on dead organic matter
C) sunlight that filters through the canopy
D) animals such as deer that migrate through the forest but do not eat in the forest
E) plants and animals in the same area

35. Which of the following activities decreases greenhouse gases in the atmosphere?
A) Cutting down trees.
B) Driving gasoline powered vehicles.
C) Using electricity from coal-powered plants.
D) Planting trees.
E) Heating your home.

36. If a bird eats an insect that ate a plant, the bird would be considered a(n) A) autotroph B) primary producer C) primary consumer D) secondary consumer E) tertiary consumer

37. When energy is converted from one form to another, some of the original energy is “lost” as
A) water B) heat C) electrons D) mechanical energy E) electrical energy

38. The statement best describes the relationship between plants and animals on earth is

A) plants produce O2 and sugars from CO2 B) animals produce CO2 and H2O from sugars and O2 C) plants produce O2 and sugars and animals produce CO2 and H2O D) animals produce O2 and sugars and plants produce CO2 and H2O

39. What do plants and animals have in common?
A) They are both heterotrophic. B) They are both autotrophic.
C) They are both prokaryotic. D) They are both eukaryotic. E) The are both hydrophobic

40. Gregor Mendel is responsible for A) Mathematics B) Natural Selection C) Molecular biology D) Genetics E) None of the above

41. Elephants travel long distances in search of food. Using vibrations felt in the ground, family members traveling separately can communicate with each other. Based on your knowledge of evolution, the ability to communicate over long distances probably developed __________. A) slowly over millions of years B) by accident C) over a ten year period D) as a strategy to decrease reproduction E) as a way to communicate with humans

42. The plasma membrane is _____________________. A) completely permeable B) selectively permeable C) impermeable D) found only in eukaryotic cells E) found only in prokaryotic cells

43. Humans are composed of ______ cells. A) prokaryotic B) bacterial C) eukaryotic D) viral E) fungal

44. Certain fungi that are important in nutrient recycling because they release nutrients from dead organisms back into the ecosystem are _____________________. A) producers B) consumers C) decomposers D) recyclers E) feeders

45. Humans are ______. A) ecosystems B) consumers C) decomposers D) cells E) producers

46. One of the end products of respiration is _____________. A) glucose B) starch C)sucrose D)water E) oxygen

47. A protein molecule, which is denatured, has __________________________. A) split into smaller molecules B) changed its shape C) combined with another molecule D) been diluted..

48. ___________________ is the term that refers to the energy-requiring movement of a substance across a biological membrane .

A) facilitated diffusion B) active transport C) osmosis D) diffusion E) endocytosis

49. All of the following are characteristics of life except _____________________________________. A) growth B) homeostasis C) movement D) reproduction E) energy use

50. In the scientific method, a hypothesis __________. A) is a statement of fact B) makes a prediction that can be tested C) is usually proven to be correct D) can only be tested once E) all of these

Fill-in each blank with the appropriate word(s) to complete the sentences. Each completed sentence is worth 1 point.

51. There are two major categories of cells. These categories are Eukaryotic cells, which include bacteria, and Prokaryotic, which include fungi.
52. Homeostasis is the term that describes an organism's ability to maintain a stable internal environment.
53. The anticodon AAA would be complimentary to the UUU.
54. You are given one strand of DNA that has the sequence GAATGC. The complementary strand is CTTACG.
55. Genes are made of segments of DNA.
56. The genetic makeup of an organism is called it Genotype, while the physical traits of an organism are called its Phenotype.
57. Osmosis is the diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane.
58. The production of ATP in cells occurs primarily in the Mitochondria.
59. Chloroplast are the organelles in plant cells that store chlorophyll and perform photosynthetic reactions.

60. Organisms that make their own food in photosynthesis are known as autotrophs or Producers.

Answer ONLY 8 of the 12 essay questions.
Each question is worth 5 points. The full number of points will be awarded for accurate, correct, full, complete, and thorough answers. Partial credit will be awarded for less than accurate, correct, full, complete, and thorough answers so it is to your advantage to attempt an answer.

1. A population of grasshoppers in the Kansas prairie has two color phenotypes, green and brown. Typically, the prairie receives adequate water to maintain healthy, green grass. Assume a bird that eats grasshoppers moves into the prairie. How will this affect natural selection of the grasshoppers? How might this change in a drought year?

This will effect the natural selection of the grasshoppers by the population of the brown grasshoppers decreasing. This would happen because the brown grasshoppers would be easier to spot in the healthy green grass by the bird who consume them. There would be less brown grasshoppers to breed too. In a drought year, the population of the green grasshoppers would be the one to decrease because they would now be the ones who are easier to spot because they no longer have a camouflage advantage. It would no be more with the brown grasshoppers.

2. You are a writer for “Consumer Reports” magazine and you are asked to design an experiment to evaluate the effectiveness of three brands of whitening strips for teeth. Describe how you would do this using the Scientific Method. Include all of the steps, controls and variables.

Observation: These three whitening strips are effective to teeth but are from different brands so they have different levels of effectiveness.

Question: What brand of whitening strips is most effective?

Hypothesis: I believe that Brand B is the most effective because I use it more.

Experiment: Use each of the whitening strips on one person who has a steady diet for a week each and see the effect of each whitening strip at the end of the week as far as the shade of white of the teeth. The control would be the person and their diet for the weeks of being tested.

Analysis of Data: Whichever proves to be most effective will be the best and recommended one. Also through this experiment the effectiveness of each one is tested.

3. Lithops, also called Stoneplants, are a type of plant that resembles little stones. These plants have the ability to blend in with their surrounding, which affords them protection from predators. If you were in an area containing Lithops, describe four characteristics you could identify to distinguish these plants from the stones they mimic.

• Lithops have a crease down their middles that show symmetry. • Lithops also have a mottled pattern on their tips • Lithops at a certain time have a flower that emerges from their center once a year. • Lithops are usually bigger than the rocks they are in the midst of.

4. Explain the process of cell division in animals. Include a description of interphase, mitosis and cytokinesis.

Mitosis is what occurs right after interphase, which is where a cell basically doubles everything in its cytoplasm. The cell in this part would increase its supply of proteins, number of its organelles and grows in size. Interphase contains three phases within it: G1, S, and G2 . After interphase, there is mitosis, which is where the nucleus and its contents divide and is evenly distributed forming two daughter nuclei. Mitosis is composed of the processes of prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. Finally there is cytokinesis, this is where the cytoplasm is divided into two. The combination of mitosis and cytokinesis make two genetically identical daughter cells, with each containing a nucleus, surrounding cytoplasm with organelles and a plasma membrane.

5. Suppose someone presented data from their research that showed the DNA of a newly discovered species was composed of: 30% adenine, 30% guanine, 20% thymine, 20% cytosine. Based on what you know about DNA structure, explain why these data do not make sense.

6. What are the differences between a covalent bond and an ionic bond?

A covalent bond is a bond between atoms where they share one or more pairs of outer shell electrons whereas an ionic bond is between oppositely-charged ions.

7. Water is crucial for life as we know it. One of the most important characteristics of water is its ability to act as a solvent. Explain why water is such a good solvent for polar and charged molecules.

Water is made up of both oxygen and hydrogen. Oxygen greatly attracts electrons and is negatively charge and hydrogen is positively charged. Water is considered a great solvent and a universal one because of these charges.

8. Suppose you are taking a cruise from California to Hawaii. About halfway there, the ship begins to sink. You are able to board a lifeboat, but now you are floating in the ocean waiting to be rescued. After several days, you are so thirsty that you bend over the side of the boat and drink lots of salty seawater. Explain what you think will happen to your body within a few hours of drinking the ocean water, and explain biological basis for your reaction.

I believe that I will quickly become dehydrated because of the salt content of the water. With the amount of salt coming in my cells will release the water around them instead of absorbing because of osmosis.

9. What is DNA fingerprinting and explain how this could be used in court or on a TV show such as CSI?

DNA fingerprinting is a procedure that analyzes an individuals collection genetic markers using PCR and gel electrophoresis. This can be used in order to see whether two samples of genetic material originated from the same individual.

10. DNA and RNA are similar yet distinct components of the cell. Describe three differences between RNA and DNA with respect to their chemical composition and structure. Provide a detailed description of each characteristic you chose in your response.

11. Why would you quickly die if not for the action of enzymes in your cells?

The enzymes are used for digestion and breaking down the food that we consume, without them, we wouldn’t be able to take the nutrients from the food and then we’d become malnourished.

12. List the four “large molecules of life.” Identify their composition and structure, and describe one function they perform in the cell.