In Kant's first Categorical Imperative, he speaks of using logic for deciding universal law, but doesn't specify who should be considered when applying the question, is it good for everyone? With Kant's second Categorical Imperative, it is clear he believes rationality should be used for the sake of other rational beings, humans. Kant obviously omits animals or any other “object” free of the ability to act independently and rationally. Essentially what Kant clarifies in the second Categorical Imperative is that use of the formulations, applies only to people, as people are “free agents capable of making their own decisions”(Rachels 138). Humans are able to use hypothetical imperatives, or the consideration of goals and outcomes when making decisions, if it doesn't involve
In Kant's first Categorical Imperative, he speaks of using logic for deciding universal law, but doesn't specify who should be considered when applying the question, is it good for everyone? With Kant's second Categorical Imperative, it is clear he believes rationality should be used for the sake of other rational beings, humans. Kant obviously omits animals or any other “object” free of the ability to act independently and rationally. Essentially what Kant clarifies in the second Categorical Imperative is that use of the formulations, applies only to people, as people are “free agents capable of making their own decisions”(Rachels 138). Humans are able to use hypothetical imperatives, or the consideration of goals and outcomes when making decisions, if it doesn't involve