File of Literature

TOEFL PRACTICE TEST 3
(Complete Test)
1. Listening Comprehension 2. Structure and Written Expression 3. Reading Comprehension

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SECTION 1
LISTENING COMPREHENSION
Time - approximately 35 minutes (including the reading of the directions for each part) In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand conversations and talks in English. There are three parts to this section, with special directions for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers you hear. Do not take notes or write in your test book at any time. Do not turn the pages until you are told to do so. Part A Directions: In Part A you will hear short conversations between two people. After each conversation, you will hear a question about the conversation. The conversations and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Here is an example. On the recording, you will hear: (man) That exam was just awful. (woman) Oh, it could have been worse. (narrator) What does the woman mean? In your test book, you will read: (A) The exam was really awful. (B) It was the worst exam she had ever seen. (C) It couldn’t have been more difficult. (D) It wasn’t that hard. Sample Answer

You learn from the conversation that the man thought the exam was very difficult and that the woman disagreed with the man. The best answer to the question, “What does the woman mean?” is (D), “It wasn’t that hard.” Therefore, the correct choice is (D).

1. (A) She doesn’t want to go to class. (B) Art has her glasses. (C) The artist will begin the portrait tonight. (D) The course starts this evening.

2. (A) A waiter. (B) A baker. (C) A neighbor. (D) A tour guide. 3. (A) She’s in the center of the shop. (B) She went shopping for a new car. (C) She took her car to the store. (D) She was driving him crazy.

4. (A) He lied. (B) He’s upset. (C) He did not tell her his name. (D) He’s always truthful. 5. (A) He believes that the woman has found some good pieces. (B) He agrees that the prices are low. (C) He would like to have a chance to say something. (D) He thinks that the woman is wrong about the prices. 6. (A) Listen to him. (B) Pay the check. (C) Attend the meeting. (D) Speak more clearly. 7. (A) Not moving inside. (B) Playing in the rain. (C) Not going out. (D) Running hard. 8. (A) The courts have decided on a new judge. (B) The judge made himself available for questions. (C) The judge decided on the issue. (D) The decision about the judge was finally made. 9. (A) She was unable to attend the chemistry class. (B) She couldn’t find the answer to the problem. (C) Chemistry class just finished. (D) She has a problem with her chemistry teacher. 17. (A) A railroad conductor. (B) A bus driver. (C) A math teacher. (D) A mechanic.

10. (A) Stay home. (B) Watch television. (C) Buy a new house. (D) Go out. 11. (A) In a business office. (B) In an airplane. (C) In a gymnasium. (D) In a classroom. 12. (A) He is probably swimming. (B) He is poor. (C) Nobody knows where he is. (D) He should not be in the pool. 13. (A) Taking naps during the day. (B) Sleeping longer during the night. (C) Getting him tired out before sleeping. (D) Only sleeping a little at night. 14. (A) The chapter was difficult to read. (B) She didn’t even try to read the chapter. (C) She got through the chapter rather easily. (D) She will try to read the chapter later today. 15. (A) He’s working as a security guard. (B) His garden is successful. (C) There are a lot of stones in the garden. (D) He enjoys the rocking chair. 16. (A) Beautiful weather is impossible. (B) She thinks the wedding is beautiful. (C) She shares the man’s opinion. (D) The red dress is incredible. 17. (A) A railroad conductor. (B) A bus driver. (C) A math teacher. (D) A mechanic.

18. (A) The sandwich needed some spices. (B) The lunch did not taste very good. (C) She had a delicious meal. (D) She hardly tasted the sandwich. 19. (A) She’s no longer sick. (B) She has no feelings. (C) Her health is always good. (D) He feels better than she does. 20. (A) Watching the professor closely in class. (B) Spending more time working in his office. (C) Studying psychology more often. (D) Talking to his professor. 21. (A) It’s difficult for him to save money. (B) He wants to purchase a home near the ocean. (C) He goes to the beach often. (D) Buying a house is out of reach for him. 22. (A) Sally has many friends. (B) He doesn’t understand anything about Sally. (C) He also thinks that Sally was not nice. (D) Sally said many different things. 23. (A) The stereo is not loud enough. (B) He is going to turn the stereo off. (C) The woman should turn and face the stereo. (D) The woman doesn’t want to hear the music. 24. (A) He was not present during the overture. (B) He was in over his head. (C) He repeatedly expressed his appreciation. (D) He thinks the present is overpriced.

25. (A) 1n a bank. (B) In an airport. (C) In a store. (D) In a hotel. 26. (A) Hanging the pictures on the wall. (B) Taking some photographs. (C) Sitting closer to the wall. (D) Visiting his hometown. 27. (A) She doesn’t know who Carl is. (B) She already had a meeting with Carl. (C) She needs to tell Carl about the meeting. (D) She knows where Carl lives. 28. (A) His book was not really cheap. (B) He bought a used text. (C) His book does not include the latest news. (D) He did not know anything about the textbooks. 29. (A) It was announced that there would be a new teacher. (B) He wanted to give something to the teacher. (C) The instructor said that a test would be given. (D) The teacher returned the exams. 30. (A) There has been a lot of decay. (B) The government is decadent. (C) The government has decided to conduct a new survey. (D) The population is counted every ten years.

Part B
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation, you will hear several questions. The conversations and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the best answer Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write in your test book. 31. (A) At one o’clock. (B) At two o’clock. (C) At three o’clock. (D) At four o’clock. 32. (A) Ski. (B) Read books on skiing. (C) Buy skiing equipment. (D) Plan ski trips. 33. (A) He doesn’t know how to ski. (B) He doesn’t know where the meeting is. (C) He doesn’t know what time the meeting starts. (D) He is afraid of skiing. 34. (A) Leave on a skiing trip. (B) Go with the woman to the meeting. (C) Try on some skis. (D) Give a lecture to the ski club. 35. (A) From the radio. (B) From a book. (C) From the newspaper. (D) From a lecture. 36. (A) You can eat it. (B) It tastes like fast food. (C) It is inexpensive. (D) You cannot see it. 37. (A) Paper. (B) Fries. (C) Corn. (D) Burgers. 38. (A) It is not as good as paper. (B) It should not be used for fast food. (C) It should be faster than paper. (D) It might be healthier than the food.

Part C
Directions: In Part C of this section, you will hear several talks. After each talk, you will hear some questions. The talks and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a question, you will read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Here is an example. On the recording, you will hear: (narrator) Listen to an instructor talk to his class about painting. (man) Artist Grant Wood was a guiding force in the school of painting known as American regionalist, a style reflecting the distinctive characteristics of art from rural areas of the United States. Wood began drawing animals on the family farm at the age of three, and when he was thirty-eight one of his paintings received a remarkable amount of public notice and acclaim. This painting, called American Gothic, is a starkly simple depiction of a serious couple staring directly out at the viewer. Now listen to a sample question. (narrator) What style of painting is known as American regionalist? In your test book, you will read: (A) Art from America’s inner cities. (B) Art from the central region of the United States. (C) Art from various urban areas in the United States. (D) Art from rural sections of America. Sample Answer

The best answer to the question, “What style of painting is known as American regionalist?” is (D), “Art from rural sections of America.” Therefore, the correct choice is (D). Now listen to another sample question. (narrator) What is the name of Woods most successful painting? In your test book, you will read: (A) American Regionalist. (B) The Family Farm in Iowa. (C) American Gothic. (D) A Serious Couple. Sample Answer

The best answer to the question, “What is the name of Wood’s most successful painting?” is (C), American Gothic. Therefore, the correct choice is (C). Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write in your test book.

39. (A) To the Grand Canyon. (B) To a jewelry show. (C) To a deserted stone building. (D) To the Petrified Forest. 40. (A) To the Grand Canyon. (B) To the Colorado River. (C) To a tree house. (D) To the Petrified Forest. 41. (A) It has fallen in the river. (B) It has turned to stone. (C) It has grown larger. (D) It has gotten softer. 42. (A) Swim in the river. (B) Walk through the trees. (C) Stay at a distance. (D) Take any petrified wood. 43. (A) Graduation requirements. (B) School clothing. (C) The date of the December graduation ceremony. (D) Which students will be seniors. 44. (A) Read it. (B) File it in their personal files. (C) Study it. (D) Give it to an advisor.

45. (A) A university class schedule. (B) A cap and gown. (C) A blue and gold flag. (D) A graduate school catalogue. 46. (A) Any time before graduation. (B) At the beginning of the senior year. (C) Before the end of December. (D) In the springtime. 47. (A) Training dogs to use smell. (B) Techniques of dog trainers. (C) The smells of various types of food. (D) How dog breeds are different. 48. (A) Most have no sense of smell. (B) They are all unable to smell drugs. (C) They have equally good senses of smell. (D) Most are quite untrainable. 49. (A) They are small. (B) They are friendly. (C) They react quickly. (D) They work well in the cold. 50. (A) Airports. (B) People. (C) Luggage. (D) Snow.

This is the end of Section 1. Stop work on Section 1. Turn off the recording.

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SECTION 2
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION Trme—25 minutes (including the reading of the directions) Now set your clock for 25 minutes. This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate for standard written English. There are two types of questions in this section, with special directions for each type. Structure Directions: These questions are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see four words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Look at the following examples. Example 1 The president the election by a landslide. (A) won (B) he won (C) yesterday (D) fortunately The sentence should read, “The president won the election by a landslide.” Therefore, you should choose answer (A). Example II When _____ the conference? (A) the doctor attended (B) did the doctor attend (C) the doctor will attend (D) the doctor’s attendance The sentence should read, “When did the doctor attend the conference?” Therefore, you should choose answer (B). Sample Answer Sample Answer

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1. _____ lived on Earth for nearly 150 million years. (A) Dinosaurs (B) Dinosaurs who (C) If dinosaurs (D) Since dinosaurs 2. Early printers arranged type into _____ a small, flat composing stick. (A) words (B) are words on (C) words on (D) the words are on 3. ____ along most of its length into an upper chamber and a lower chamber. (A) The divided cochlea (B) Dividing the cochlea (C) The cochlea is divided (D) With a divided cochlea 4. Yeast is an organic catalyst _____ known to prehistoric humanity. (A) was (B) which was (C) which it (D) which 5. Many communities _____ a complex system of linguistic levels in order to show respect. (A) useful (B) use already made (C) making it useful (D) make use of

6. The ear is a flexible organ, _____ simply was not designed to withstand the noise of modern living. (A) but it (B) it (C) but (D) its 7. In 1934, chemist Wallace Carothers produced a plastic which _____ nylon. (A) his call (B) he called (C) to call him (D) calling 8. As _____ grows, the shell in which it lives grows, too. (A) a mollusk (B) a mollusk it (C) has a mollusk (D) it has a mollusk 9. The first _____ the Civil War was fired from Fort Johnson upon Fort Sumter on April 12, 1861. (A) shot (B) shot in (C) shot was in (D) it was shot 10. Stalactites are formed in caves by groundwater ______ dissolved lime. (A) it contains (B) containing (C) contains (D) containment

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11. By studying the movements of the Sun and Moon, even early astronomers could _____ eclipses would take place. (A) predicting when (B) when it predicts (C) the prediction when (D) predict when 12. Coffee probably originally grew wild in Ethiopia in the province of Kaffe, and from there _____ to southern Arabia. (A) bringing it (B) it was brought (C) brought it (D) brought with it 13. Alabama was occupied by the French and Spanish before _____ to England in 1763. (A) was ceded (B) ceded to it (C) it was ceded (D) ceded it

14. A group of winged reptiles pterosaurs is believed to have been the first vertebrates with the power of flight. (A) call (B) calls (C) called (D) is called 15. On November 23, 1863, Grant stunned the Confederates on Missionary Ridge with what _____ to be a full-dress military parade of troops who unexpectedly opened fire. (A) appeared (B) appearing (C) appearance (D) apparent

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Written Expression
Directions: In these questions, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Look at the following examples. Example I The four string on a violin are tuned in fifths. A B C D The sentence should read, “The four strings on a violin are tuned in fifths.” Therefore, you should choose answer (B). Example II The research for the book Roots taking Alex Haley twelve years A B C D Sample Answer Sample Answer

The sentence should read, “The research for the book Roots took Alex Haley twelve years.” Therefore, you should choose answer (C).

16. Vast flows of information is carried on hair-thin fiber-optic cables A B C D 17. The crafting of fine violins has been proceeding for several century as a secret art. A B C D 18. Linguistic conflicts due to divided ethnic and national loyalties can be both bitter or violent A B C D 19. In 1851, with the publication of hers antislavery novel, Harriet Beecher Stowe rocketed to fame A B C D 20. The smallest and simple living organisms on Earth are bacteria. A B C D

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21. The effort to determine the exact numerical value of pi has now reach 2.16 billion decimal digits. A B C D 22. The hammerhead shark is usual found in warm, temperate waters A B C D 23. Princeton University, which was establish in 1746, is one of the oldest universities in the United States. A B C D 24. According to a World Resources Institute report, a significant part of forest acreage disappear each year. A B C D 25. The Earth’s crust is composed of 15 plates which float on the partially molten layer below they. A B C D 26. As one climbs high up a mountain, the air becomes both colder or thinner. A B C D 27. When a bone is broke into several pieces doctors may pin the pieces together for proper healing A B C D 28. The long necks of much plant-eating dinosaurs were useful for reaching up to the treetops to feed. A B C D 29. Hippocrates believed that good health was dependently on the balance of the four fluids of the body. A B C D 30. A jet stream is a flat and narrow tube of air that moves more rapid than the surrounding air. A B C D

31. Because mistletoe berries are poisonous everyone with Christmas decorations containing mistletoe A B need to be aware of the potential danger C D 32. When Pierre L`Enfant designed the national capital in 1791, her envisioned a broad boulevard A B C linking the White House and the Capitol. D 33. In a copperhead snake the venom flows from a single venom glands to a pair of hollow teeth. A B C D 34. A hawk swallows its food in large pieces digests some of it, and regurgitating the rest. A B C D

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35. Defects can occurring when liquid helium undergoes a phase transition to its super fluid phase. A B C D 36. Cavemen created a large amount of early works of art using a mixture of clay, chalk, and burned A B C wood and bones. D 37. Variations in melody, rhythm and tone of voice becomes a major feature of child speech toward A B C D the end of the first year. 38. As a protective protein molecule, an antibody can combines with a foreign virus protein. A B C D 39. The water moccasin is a high venomous and extremely dangerous pit viper. A B C D 40. Though aluminum is more common than iron, it is extremely difficult to break their hold on A B C other atoms. D This is the end of Section 2. If you finish before 25 minutes has ended, check your work on Section 2 only.

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SECTION 3
READING COMPREHENSION
Time—55 minutes (including the reading of the directions) Now set your clock for 55 minutes. This section is designed to measure your ability to read and understand short passages similar in topic and style to those that students are likely to encounter in North American universities and colleges. This section contains reading passages and questions about the passages. Directions: In this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by a number of questions about it. You are to choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (D), to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions about the information in a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage. Read the following passage: John Quincy Adams, who served as the sixth president of the United States from 1825 to 1829, is today recognized for his masterful statesmanship and diplomacy. He dedicated his life to public service, both in the presidency and in the various other political offices that he held. Throughout his political career he demonstrated his unswerving belief in freedom of speech, the antislavery cause, and the right of Americans to be free from European and Asian domination. Example I To what did John Quincy Adams devote his life? (A) Improving his personal life (B) Serving the public (C) Increasing his fortune (D) Working on his private business According to the passage, John Quincy Adams “dedicated his life to public service.” Therefore, you should choose answer (B). Example II In line 4, the word “unswerving” is closest in meaning to (A) moveable (B) insignificant (C) unchanging (D) diplomatic The passage states that John Quincy Adams demonstrated his unswerving belief “throughout his career.” This implies that the belief did not change. Therefore, you should choose answer (C). Sample Answer Sample Answer

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Questions 1—8 The tiniest bird in the world is the male bee hummingbird. Because it is so small, it is often mistaken for a bee or some other type of insect of that size. As a hummingbird, it is able to flap its wings extremely quickly, up to eighty times per second. With this really fast wing speed, the bee hummingbird can hover like a helicopter; fly forward, fly backward, or even fly upside down. 1. What is the topic of this passage? (A) The bee (B) One type of hummingbird (C) How fast hummingbirds fly (D) How helicopters fly 2. The word “tiniest” in line I is closest in meaning to (A) fastest (B) most dangerous (C) noisiest (D) smallest 3. It can be inferred from the passage that the female bee hummingbird (A) is really a bee (B) does not exist (C) is larger than the male (D) eats insects 4. According to the passage, when people see a male bee hummingbird, they often incorrectly think it is (A) a bird (B) an insect (C) a bat (D) a helicopter 5. In line 3, to “flap” wings is to (A) hold them still (B) stretch them out (C) fold them (D) move them up and down 6. According to the passage, how fast can a bee hummingbird flap its wings? (A) A hundred times each second (B) Eighty times per minute (C) Eighty times each second (D) Eight times in a second 7. In line 4, to “hover” is to (A) fly forward quickly (B) land (C) stay in place in the air (D) use fuel 8. The passage indicates that a bee hummingbird can do all of the following EXCEPT (A) hover (B) fly backward (C) fly in an inverted position (D) fly a helicopter

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Questions 9—18 One mystery about elephants that seems to have been solved is how elephants communicate with each other. Humans have heard a whole variety of sounds coming from elephants, but these sounds are not the only way that elephants communicate. A .new explanation about elephant communication is being proposed. Elephants vibrate the air in their trunks and foreheads. The sound that is created during this vibration has an extremely low pitch; the pitch, in fact, is so low that humans cannot hear it. However, it seems that other elephants can and do hear and understand these low rumblings. 9. The passage mainly discusses (A) the answer to a question about how elephants communicate (B) how elephants vibrate the air in their trunks (C) communication between animals and humans (D) the sounds that elephants make 10. A “mystery” in line 1 is (A) a speech (B) something unknown (C) a funny story (D) a detective 11. According to the passage, people (A) cannot hear any elephant sounds (B) are not interested in elephant sounds (C) hear only one elephant sound (D) can hear numerous elephant sounds 12. It can be inferred from the passage that the elephant sounds that humans hear are (A) one of the ways that elephants communicate (B) not part of elephant communication (C) how elephants communicate with humans (D) the only sounds that elephants make 13. The word way” in line 3 could best be replaced by (A) direction (B) method (C) path (D) road 14. Where do elephants vibrate air? (A) In their throats (B) In their trunks (C) In their mouths (D) In their ears 15. The word “pitch” in line 6 is closest in meaning to which of the following? (A) Meaning (B) Voice (C) Height (D) Sound 16. Which of the following is NOT true about the extremely low sound created by elephants? (A) Humans cannot understand it. (B) Humans hear it. (C) Elephants hear it. (D) Elephants understand it.

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17. The word “rumblings” in line 7 is closest in meaning to (A) words (B) ears (C) vibrations (D) melodies

18. Where in the passage does the author describe the sound that elephants create in their trunks and foreheads? (A) Lines 1—2 (B) Lines 2—3 (C) Line 4 (D) Lines 5—6

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Questions 19—28 George Gershwin grew up in New York City, and he first made his living playing popular music on the piano in “Tin Pan Alley’ the music publishing district of New York. It was there that he developed a strong feel for the popular music of the time that served as a basis for the popular songs that he composed. In , to his love of popular songs, lie enjoyed jazz and believed that jazz was the primary source of truly American folk music. Jazz had, prior to Gershwin’s time, been performed by small jazz bands and soloists, but Gershwin believed that jazz could serve as the basis for serious symphonic works. Gershwin became the link between jazz and serious classical music with such works as his jazz concerto Rhapsody in Blue and the jazz-inspired orchestral piece An American in Paris. 19. The passage mainly discusses (A) George Gershwin’s popular music (B) Tin Pan Alley (C) American jazz (D) the variety of music by Gershwin 20. The word “made” in line 1 could best be replaced by (A) constructed (B) earned (C) worked (D) built 21. According to the passage, Tin Pan Alley is (A) a piano shop (B) a music studio (C) an area in New York City (D) a street where Gershwin lived 22. Which o the following is NOT true about George Gershwin’s relationship with popular music? (A) He played popular music on the piano. (B) Popular music was the foundation of some of his songs. (C) He wrote some popular songs. (D) Popular music was the only type of music that he enjoyed. 23. Gershwin believed that jazz (A) was real American traditional music (B) should only be played in small bands (C) was not serious music (D) was not as enjoyable as popular music 24. The word “primary” in line 5 is closest in meaning to (A) main (B) only (C) first (D) unknown 25. The expression “prior to” in line 6 is closest in meaning to (A) during (B) after (C) in (D) before

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26. It can be inferred from the passage that Gershwin (A) wrote the first jazz music (B) wrote jazz music for larger groups (C) did not like writing jazz music (D) wrote only for small jazz bands 27. The word “link” in line 8 is closest in meaning to (A) divider (B) separation (C) judge (D) connection

28. Where in the passage does the author mention the names of some of Gershwin’s works? (A) Lines 1—2 (B) Lines 2—4 (C) Lines 5—6 (D) Lines 8—10

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Questions 29—39 Like a lot of other ideas, chewing gum developed when an inventive person was trying to develop something else. In 1870, Thomas Adams was trying to create a substance similar to rubber. He knew that in the past, natives of Mexico had enjoyed chewing chicle, which was the gum of the sapodilla tree; he thought that this chicle might possibly be useful as a replacement for rubber. While he was working with it, he decided to try chewing it, just as had been done in Mexico. He enjoyed the sensation and decided that he should try selling it. Unfortunately, however, not many people bought it. He then improved the product by adding flavorings and sugar to it, and he gave out free samples until the product caught on. Though he never succeeded in his original search for a replacement for rubber; lie became highly successful as a chewing gum producer. 29. The main idea of the passage is that (A) chicle was commonly chewed in Mexico (B) Thomas Adams invented chewing gum by accident (C) Thomas Adams enjoyed chewing chicle (D) Thomas Adams was unsuccessful in finding a substitute for rubber 30. In line 1, the expression “an inventive person” could best be replaced by (A) a creative person (B) an illogical person (C) a destructive person (D) a mistaken person 31. According to the passage, what did Thomas Adams originally want to create? (A) Chewing gum (B) The sapodilla tree (C) A rubber substitute (D) Flavorings 32. Which of the following is NOT true about chicle? (A) It comes from a tree. (B) Some people like chewing it. (C) It is part of the rubber plant. (D) Adams thought he might find a use for it. 33. In line 3, “natives” are (A) trees (B) people (C) places (D) plastics 34. The word “sensation” in line 6 is closest in meaning to (A) thought (B) feeling (C) taste (D) look 35. According to the passage, what happened when Thomas Adams first tried selling his chicle product? (A) It did not sell very well. (B) It was successful because of the taste. (C) People thought it was rubber. (D) Adams became immediately successful. 36. “Flavorings” in line 7 are used to improve a product’s (A) appearance (B) feel (C) taste (D) smell

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37. It is implied in the passage that Adams gave out free samples of gum because (A) he had a lot that he did not want (B) he did not care about making money (C) he was not a very smart businessman (D) he wanted to improve future sales 38. According to the passage, in his search for a rubber substitute, Adams (A) was not successful (B) found the original rubber plant (C) succeeded late in his life (D) was highly successful

39. Where in the passage does the author explain what chicle is? (A) Lines 1—2 (B) Lines 3—4 (C) Line 5 (0) Lines 8—9

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Questions 40—50 Sometimes mail arrives at the post office, and it is impossible to deliver the mail. Perhaps there is an inadequate or illegible address and no return address. The post office cannot just throw this mail away, so this becomes “dead mail.” This dead mail is sent to one f the U.S. Postal Service’s dead-mail offices in Atlanta, New York, Philadelphia, St. Paul, or San Francisco. Seventy-five million pieces of mail can end up in the dead-mail office in one year. The staff of the dead-mail offices have a variety of ways to deal with all of these pieces of dead mail. First of all, they look for clues that can help them deliver the mail; they open packages in the hope that something inside will show where the package came from or is going to. Dead mail will also be listed on a computer so that people can call in and check to see if a missing item is there. However, all of this mail cannot simply be stored forever; there is just too much of it, When a lot of dead mail has piled up, the dead-mail offices hold public auctions. Every three months, the public is invited in and bins containing items found in dead-mail packages are sold to the highest bidder. 40. The best title for the passage is (A) The U.S. Postal Service (B) Staff Responsibilities at the U.S. Postal Service (C) Why Mail Is Undeliverable (D) Dead-Mail Offices 41. Dead mail is mail that (A) has no use (B) has been read and thrown away (C) is unwanted (D) is undeliverable 42. The word “illegible” in line 2 is closest in meaning to which of the following? (A) Incomplete (B) Missing (C) Unreadable (D) Incorrect 43. According to the passage, how many dead-mail offices does the U.S. Postal Service have? (A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 15 (D) 75 44. The word “staff” in line 6 is closest in meaning to (A) workers (B) machines (C) rules (D) pieces of furniture 45. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a way that post office staff members deal with dead mail? (A) They search for clues. (B) They throw dead mail away. (C) They open dead mail. (D) They list dead mail on a computer. 46. It is implied in the passage that the deadmail staff would be happy if they opened a package and found (A) money (B) jewelry (C) a computer (D) an address

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47. In line 9, the expression “call in” could best be replaced by (A) visit (B) phone (C) shout (D) talk 48. The passage indicates auctions are held (A) once a year (B) twice a year (C) three times a year (D) four times a year that dead-mail

49. The word “auctions” in line 11 is closest in meaning to (A) sales (B) deliveries (C) meetings (D) demonstrations 50. Where in the passage does the author explain why the post office cannot store dead mail forever? (A) Lines 2—3 (B) Lines 4—5 (C) Lines 7—8 (D) Line 10

This is the end of PRACTICE TEST 3

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