Practice Exam

1.
To ensure that other researchers can repeat their work, psychologists use
A)
control groups.
B)
random assignment.
C)
double-blind procedures.
D)
operational definitions.

2.
Well-done surveys measure attitudes in a representative subset, or ________, of an entire group, or ________.
A)
population; random sample
B)
control group; experimental group
C)
experimental group; control group
D)
random sample; population

3.
If shoe size and IQ are negatively correlated, which of the following is true?
A)
People with large feet tend to have high IQs.
B)
People with small feet tend to have high IQs.
C)
People with small feet tend to have low IQs.
D)
IQ is unpredictable based on a person's shoe size.

4.
To determine the effects of a new drug on memory, one group of people is given a pill that contains the drug. A second group is given a sugar pill that does not contain the drug. This second group constitutes the
A)
random sample.
B)
experimental group.
C)
control group.
D)
test group.

5.
The concept of control is important in psychological research because
A)
without control over independent and dependent variables, researchers cannot describe, predict, or explain behavior.
B)
experimental control allows researchers to study the influence of one or two independent variables on a dependent variable while holding other potential influences constant.
C)
without experimental control, results cannot be generalized from a sample to a population.
D)
of all of these reasons.

6.
What is the median of the following distribution of scores: 1, 3, 7, 7, 2, 8, 4?
A)
1
B)
2
C)
3
D)
4

7.
Bob scored 43 out of 70 points on his psychology exam. He was worried until he discovered that most of the class earned the same score. Bob's score was equal to the
A)
mean.
B)
median.
C)
mode.
D)
range.

8.
The football team's punter wants to determine how consistent his punting distances have been during the past season. He should compute the
A)
mean.
B)
median.
C)
mode.
D)
standard deviation.

9.
When a difference between two groups is statistically significant, this means that
A)
the difference is statistically real but of little practical significance.
B)
the difference is probably the result of sampling variation.
C)
the difference is not likely to be due to chance variation.
D)
all of these statements are true.

10.
Which statement about the ethics of experimentation with people and animals is false?
A)
Only a small percentage of animal experiments use shock.
B)
Allegations that psychologists routinely subject animals to pain, starvation, and other inhumane conditions have been proven untrue.
C)
The American Psychological Association and the British Psychological Society have set strict guidelines for the care and treatment of human and animal subjects.
D)
More animals are used in psychological research than are killed by humane animal shelters.

11.
The movement of positively charged ions across the membrane of a neuron can produce a(n)
A)
action potential.
B)
synapse.
C)
glial cell.
D)
myelin sheath.
E)
interneuron.

12.
Neurotransmitters are released from vesicles located on knoblike terminals at the end of the
A)
dendrites.
B)
cell body.
C)
axon.
D)
myelin sheath.
E)
synapse.

13.
José has just played a long, bruising football game but feels little fatigue or discomfort. His lack of pain is most likely caused by the release of
A)
glutamate.
B)
dopamine.
C)
acetylcholine.
D)
endorphins.
E)
insulin.

14.
The somatic nervous system is a component of the ________ nervous system.
A)
peripheral
B)
autonomic
C)
central
D)
sympathetic
E)
parasympathetic

15.
Hormones are the chemical messengers of the
A)
cerebral cortex.
B)
autonomic nervous system.
C)
endocrine system.
D)
limbic system.
E)
reticular formation.

16.
The best way to detect enlarged fluid-filled brain regions in some patients who have schizophrenia is to use a(n)
A)
EEG.
B)
MRI.
C)
PET scan.
D)
brain lesion.
E)
X-ray.

17.
Which brain structure relays information from the eyes to the visual cortex?
A)
thalamus
B)
amygdala
C)
medulla
D)
hippocampus
E)
cerebellum

18.
The occipital lobes are to ________ as the temporal lobes are to ________.
A)
hearing; sensing movement
B)
seeing; sensing touch
C)
sensing pleasure; sensing pain
D)
seeing; hearing
E)
speaking; hearing

19.
The most extensive regions of the cerebral cortex, which enable learning and memory, are called the
A)
reticular formation.
B)
medulla.
C)
sensory areas.
D)
cerebellum.
E)
association areas.

20.
Information is most quickly transmitted from one cerebral hemisphere to the other by the
A)
medulla.
B)
corpus callosum.
C)
angular gyrus.
D)
limbic system.
E)
reticular formation.

21.
Felix was so preoccupied with his girlfriend's good looks that he failed to perceive any of her less admirable characteristics. This best illustrates the dangers of
A)
perceptual adaptation.
B)
figure-ground relationships.
C)
selective attention.
D)
the cocktail party effect.
E)
perceptual constancy.

22.
Those who emphasize that mood fluctuations may be indicative of seasonal affective disorder are highlighting the importance of
A)
neuroadaptation.
B)
animal magnetism.
C)
biological rhythms.
D)
narcolepsy.
E)
REM sleep.

23.
Sleeptalking may occur during
A)
Stage 1 sleep.
B)
Stage 2 sleep.
C)
REM sleep.
D)
Stage 4 sleep.
E)
any stage of sleep.

24.
REM sleep is called paradoxical sleep because
A)
our heart rate is slow and steady, while our breathing is highly irregular.
B)
we are deeply asleep but can be awakened easily.
C)
our nervous system is highly active, while our voluntary muscles hardly move.
D)
it leads to highly imaginative dreams that are perceived as colorless images.
E)
our brain and nervous system are less active and our muscles are very active.

25.
Mr. Dayton occasionally stops breathing while sleeping. He wakes up to snort air for a few seconds before falling back to sleep. Mrs. Dayton complains that her husband snores. Clearly, Mr. Dayton suffers from
A)
sleep apnea.
B)
narcolepsy.
C)
insomnia.
D)
night terrors.
E)
aphasia.

26.
As Inge recalled her dream, she was dancing with a tall, dark gentleman when suddenly the music shifted to loud rock and the man disappeared. According to Freud, Inge's account represents the ________ content of her dream.
A)
paradoxical
B)
manifest
C)
latent
D)
hypnagogic
E)
hallucinatory

27.
Just prior to awakening Chinua from a hypnotic state, the therapist told him that during the next few days he would feel nauseous whenever he reached for a cigarette. Chinua's therapist was attempting to make use of
A)
age regression.
B)
posthypnotic suggestion.
C)
hypnagogic sensations.
D)
REM rebound.
E)
a hidden observer.

28.
Which of the following provides the clearest indication of a drug addiction?
A)
physical dependence
B)
hallucinations
C)
narcolepsy
D)
alpha waves
E)
REM rebound

29.
Which of the following is an amphetamine derivative that acts as a mild hallucinogen?
A)
marijuana
B)
Nembutal
C)
Ecstasy
D)
heroin
E)
LSD

30.
Plato's belief that death involves the separation of the mind from the body is known as
A)
the circadian rhythm.
B)
age regression.
C)
dissociation.
D)
dualism.
E)
hypnagogic state.

31.
Twin studies suggest that a strong influence on emotional instability comes from
A)
genetic predispositions.
B)
the Y chromosome.
C)
gender schemas.
D)
the X chromosome.
E)
testosterone.

32.
Pat is normally very restless and fidgety, whereas Shelley is usually quiet and easygoing. The two children most clearly differ in
A)
intelligence.
B)
gender schemas.
C)
temperament.
D)
physical health.
E)
introversion level.

33.
Heritability refers to the extent to which
A)
unrelated individuals share common genes.
B)
genetic mutations can be transmitted to one's offspring.
C)
trait differences among individuals are attributable to genetic variations.
D)
adult personality is determined by infant temperament.
E)
nurture controls a trait rather than nature.

34.
If a genetically based attraction to beautiful people contributes to survival, that trait will likely be passed on to subsequent generations. This best illustrates
A)
gender typing.
B)
natural selection.
C)
behavior genetics.
D)
collectivism.
E)
individualism.

35.
Evolutionary psychologists would be most likely to attribute gender differences in attitudes toward casual sex to the fact that men have ________ than do women.
A)
larger bodies
B)
stronger gender identity
C)
a weaker sense of empathy
D)
greater reproductive potential
E)
more insecurities

36.
Children raised in the same family are not especially likely to have similar personalities. This most clearly implies that we should be cautious about attributing personality to
A)
gender schemas.
B)
parental influences.
C)
temperament.
D)
peer influences.
E)
traits.

37.
In comparison to 40 years ago, American women today are more likely to marry for the sake of
A)
economic advantage.
B)
social status.
C)
reproductive success.
D)
gender identity.
E)
love.

38.
Social roles are especially likely to be central to people's self-identity in ________ cultures.
A)
individualist
B)
ethnically diverse
C)
collectivist
D)
racially diverse
E)
democratic

39.
Cross-cultural research on human development indicates that
A)
person-to-person differences within cultural groups are larger than differences between groups.
B)
differences among cultural groups largely reflect genetic differences among racial groups.
C)
gender differences in behavior result from differences in biology rather than from differences in life experiences.
D)
developmental processes differ greatly among individuals raised in different cultures.
E)
genetic assessment of Cultural differences is possible.

40.
The social roles assigned to women and men
A)
are virtually the same in all cultures.
B)
have been virtually the same in all historical time periods.
C)
differ widely across cultures.
D)
differ widely across historical time periods but not across cultures.
E)
are based on evolutionary and genetic strengths.

41.
An integrated understanding of gender differences in behavior in terms of gender roles, sex hormones, and individual expectations regarding gender appropriate behavior is most clearly provided by
A)
gender schema theory.
B)
molecular genetics.
C)
a biopsychosocial approach.
D)
evolutionary psychology.
E)
social learning.

42.
Newborn infants typically prefer their mother's voice over their father's voice because
A)
their rooting reflex is naturally triggered by higher-pitched sounds.
B)
they rapidly habituate to lower-pitched male voices.
C)
they become familiar with their mother's voice before they are born.
D)
they form an emotional attachment to their mother during breast-feeding.
E)
they have difficulty hearing lower-pitched voices during the first few days after birth.

43.
The rooting reflex refers to a baby's tendency to
A)
withdraw a limb to escape pain.
B)
turn the head away from a cloth placed over the face.
C)
open the mouth in search of a nipple when touched on the cheek.
D)
be startled by a loud noise.
E)
look longer at human faces than at inanimate objects.

44.
Newborns have been observed to show the greatest visual interest in a
A)
rectangular shape.
B)
circular shape.
C)
bull's-eye pattern.
D)
facelike image.
E)
mirrored surface.

45.
Mr. and Mrs. Batson can't wait to begin toilet training their year-old daughter. The Batsons most clearly need to be informed about the importance of
A)
imprinting.
B)
habituation.
C)
fluid intelligence.
D)
maturation.
E)
object permanence.

46.
The first time that 4-year-old Sarah saw her older brother play a flute, she thought it was simply a large whistle. Sarah's initial understanding of the flute best illustrates the process of
A)
assimilation.
B)
egocentrism.
C)
conservation.
D)
accommodation.
E)
maturation.

47.
Although Mr. Tong was obviously busy reading an absorbing novel, his 5-year-old daughter kept interrupting him with comments and questions about the TV cartoons she was watching. Before Mr. Tong becomes irritated with his daughter for being inconsiderate, he should be alerted to Piaget's concept of
A)
object permanence.
B)
habituation.
C)
conservation.
D)
egocentrism.
E)
accommodation.

48.
The acquisition of a sense of object permanence is most closely associated with the development of
A)
conservation.
B)
concrete operational intelligence.
C)
stranger anxiety.
D)
self-awareness.
E)
egocentrism.

49.
A critical period is a phase during which
A)
children frequently disobey and resist their parents.
B)
children become able to think hypothetically and reason abstractly.
C)
parents frequently show impatience with a child's slowness in becoming toilet trained.
D)
certain events have a particularly strong impact on development.
E)
periods during attachment formation when the child criticizes the caregivers.

50.
Babies who are unable to predict how their parents will react to their cries for care and attention are especially likely to show signs of
A)
egocentrism.
B)
conservation.
C)
crystallized intelligence.
D)
insecure attachment.
E)
habituation.

51.
Edith abuses both her 3-year-old and 1-year-old daughters. Her behavior is most likely related to a lack of
A)
childhood experience with younger brothers and sisters.
B)
maturation.
C)
an early and secure attachment to her own parents.
D)
formal operational intelligence.
E)
object permanence.

52.
The first ejaculation is to an adolescent boy as ________ is to an adolescent girl.
A)
sexual intercourse
B)
puberty
C)
the first kiss
D)
menarche
E)
secure attachment

53.
Critics of Kohlberg's theory of moral development have suggested that postconventional morality is more characteristic of
A)
men than women.
B)
Democrats than Republicans.
C)
socialists than capitalists.
D)
African Americans than white Americans.
E)
Catholics than Protestants.

54.
Menopause is associated with a reduction in
A)
adrenaline.
B)
testosterone.
C)
estrogen.
D)
acetylcholine.
E)
dopamine.

55.
Identical twins with similar values and preferences are not very strongly attracted to one another's fiancés. This fact has been used to suggest that romantic attraction is influenced by
A)
fluid intelligence.
B)
the social clock.
C)
secondary sex characteristics.
D)
chance encounters.
E)
basic trust.

56.
A belief that adult personality is completely determined in early childhood years would be most relevant to the issue of
A)
continuity or stages.
B)
stability or change.
C)
fluid or crystallized intelligence.
D)
conventional or postconventional morality.
E)
cross-sectional or longitudinal studies.

57.
John B. Watson considered himself to be a(n)
A)
physiological psychologist.
B)
cognitive psychologist.
C)
behaviorist.
D)
psychoanalyst.
E)
operant conditioner.

58.
For the most rapid acquisition of a CR, the CS should be presented
A)
shortly after the CR.
B)
shortly after the US.
C)
shortly before the US.
D)
at the same time as the US.
E)
shortly before the CR.

59.
The tendency for a CR to be evoked by stimuli similar to the CS is called
A)
spontaneous recovery.
B)
conditioned reinforcement.
C)
latent learning.
D)
generalization.
E)
shaping.

60.
Animals most readily learn the specific associations that promote
A)
shaping.
B)
survival.
C)
extrinsic motivation.
D)
prosocial behavior.
E)
social interaction.

61.
Because Saleem was spanked on several occasions for biting electric cords, he no longer does so. Saleem's behavior change best illustrates the value of
A)
negative reinforcement.
B)
classical conditioning.
C)
conditioned reinforcers.
D)
operant conditioning.
E)
observational learning.

62.
Receiving delicious food is to escaping electric shock as ________ is to ________.
A)
positive reinforcer; negative reinforcer
B)
primary reinforcer; secondary reinforcer
C)
immediate reinforcer; delayed reinforcer
D)
reinforcement; punishment
E)
partial reinforcement; continuous reinforcement

63.
Which of the following is the best example of a conditioned reinforcer?
A)
applause for an excellent piano recital
B)
a spanking for eating cookies before dinner
C)
a cold root beer for mowing the lawn on a hot day
D)
termination of shock after removing one's finger from a live electric wire
E)
pudding for eating all your peas at supper

64.
If rats are allowed to wander through a complicated maze, they will subsequently run the maze with few errors when a food reward is placed at the end. Their good performance demonstrates
A)
shaping.
B)
latent learning.
C)
delayed reinforcement.
D)
spontaneous recovery.
E)
modeling.

65.
According to B. F. Skinner, human behavior is controlled primarily by
A)
biological predispositions.
B)
external influences.
C)
emotions.
D)
unconscious motives.
E)
conscious thoughts.

66.
Rhesus macaque monkeys are more likely to reconcile after a fight if they grow up with forgiving older stumptail macaque monkeys. This best illustrates the impact of
A)
observational learning.
B)
immediate reinforcement.
C)
spontaneous recovery.
D)
respondent behavior.
E)
shaping.

67.
Skinner is to shaping as Bandura is to
A)
punishing.
B)
extinguishing.
C)
discriminating.
D)
modeling.
E)
generalizing.

68.
In the process of classifying objects, people are especially likely to make use of
A)
algorithms.
B)
phonemes.
C)
prototypes.
D)
mental sets.
E)
heuristics.

69.
Logical, methodical step-by-step procedures for solving problems are called
A)
heuristics.
B)
semantics.
C)
prototypes.
D)
algorithms.
E)
fixations.

70.
An algorithm is a
A)
simple thinking strategy for making decisions quickly and efficiently.
B)
method of hypothesis testing involving trial and error.
C)
best example of a particular category.
D)
methodical step-by-step procedure for solving problems.
E)
specific kind of prototype.

71.
The inability to take a new perspective on a problem is called a
A)
confirmation bias.
B)
fixation.
C)
heuristic.
D)
framing effect.
E)
prototype.

72.
Jerome believes that his 4-year-old grandson is a hyperactive child because the boy's constant movement resembles Jerome's prototype of hyperactivity. Jerome's thinking best illustrates
A)
belief perseverance.
B)
the availability heuristic.
C)
the representativeness heuristic.
D)
functional fixedness.
E)
the framing effect.

73.
State lottery officials send residents a facsimile of a contest-winning check for over $5 million so as to encourage them to imagine themselves as possible winners. The lottery promoters are most clearly exploiting the influence of
A)
functional fixedness.
B)
belief perseverance.
C)
mental set.
D)
the availability heuristic.
E)
the representativeness heuristic.

74.
Consumers respond more positively to ground beef advertised as “75 percent lean” than to ground beef described as “25 percent fat.” This illustrates that consumer reactions are influenced by
A)
the representativeness heuristic.
B)
the belief perseverance phenomenon.
C)
confirmation bias.
D)
the availability heuristic.
E)
framing.

75.
The characteristics of savant syndrome have been used to support
A)
Spearman's belief in a Is intelligence one general ability or several specific abilities?or g, factor.
B)
Thurstone's notion of social intelligence.
C)
Gardner's argument for multiple intelligences.
D)
Stern's original IQ formula.
E)
Binet's intelligence quotient formula.

76.
The ability to control one's impulses and delay immediate pleasures in pursuit of long-term goals is most clearly a characteristic of
A)
emotional intelligence.
B)
heritability.
C)
mental age.
D)
savant syndrome.
E)
divergent thinking.

77.
A 6-year-old who responded to the original Stanford-Binet with the proficiency typical of an average 8-year-old was said to have an IQ of
A)
75.
B)
85.
C)
115.
D)
125.
E)
133.

78.
Unlike today's most widely used intelligence tests, the original Stanford-Binet would be most clearly criticized with respect to its
A)
standardization sample.
B)
reliability.
C)
factor analysis.
D)
predictive validity.
E)
heritability.

79.
A test that measures or predicts what it is supposed to is said to have a high degree of
A)
validity.
B)
standardization.
C)
reliability.
D)
the g factor.
E)
factor analysis.

80.
Which of the following observations provides the best evidence that intelligence test scores are influenced by environment?
A)
Fraternal twins are more similar in their intelligence scores than are ordinary siblings.
B)
The intelligence scores of children are positively correlated with those of their parents.
C)
Identical twins are more similar in their intelligence scores than are fraternal twins.
D)
The intelligence scores of siblings reared together are positively correlated.
E)
Different national groups have different average intelligence scores.

81.
Blacks have been found to score lower on tests of verbal aptitude when tested by Whites than when tested by Blacks. This best illustrates the impact of
A)
standardization.
B)
savant syndrome.
C)
emotional intelligence.
D)
stereotype threat.
E)
the Flynn effect.

82.
Stress is defined as
A)
unpleasant or aversive events that cannot be controlled.
B)
situations that threaten health.
C)
the process by which we perceive and respond to challenging or threatening events.
D)
anything that decreases immune responses.

83.
The leading cause of death in North America is
A)
lung cancer.
B)
AIDS.
C)
coronary heart disease.
D)
alcohol-related accidents.

84.
Genuine illnesses that are caused by stress are called ________ illnesses.
A)
psychophysiological
B)
cathartic
C)
psychogenic
D)
psychotropic

85.
Stress has been demonstrated to place a person at increased risk of
A)
cancer.
B)
progressing from HIV infection to AIDS.
C)
bacterial infections.
D)
all of these conditions.

86.
You have just transferred to a new campus and find yourself in a potentially stressful environment. According to the text, which of the following would help you cope with the stress?
A)
believing that you have some control over your environment
B)
having a friend to confide in
C)
feeling optimistic that you will eventually adjust to your new surroundings
D)
All of these things would help.

87.
Which of the following is true of biofeedback training?
A)
A person is given sensory feedback for a subtle body response.
B)
Biological functions controlled by the autonomic nervous system may come under conscious control.
C)
The accompanying relaxation is much the same as that produced by other, simpler methods of relaxation.
D)
All of these statements are true.

88.
Concluding her presentation on spirituality and health, Maja notes that
A)
historically, religion and medicine joined hands in caring for the sick.
B)
religious involvement predicts health and longevity.
C)
people who attend religious services weekly have healthier life-styles.
D)
all of these statements are true.

89.
A dispositional attribution is to ________ as a situational attribution is to ________.
A)
normative influence; informational influence
B)
high ability; low motivation
C)
personality traits; assigned roles
D)
politically liberal; politically conservative
E)
introversion; extraversion

90.
Politicians who publicly oppose a tax increase that they privately favor best illustrate that
A)
people often fail to notice the influence they exert over others.
B)
a pooling of efforts toward a common goal contributes to social loafing.
C)
the presence of others interferes with individual performance on difficult tasks.
D)
actions may sometimes be inconsistent with attitudes.
E)
group discussion enhances a group's prevailing attitudes.

91.
A life insurance salesperson who takes advantage of the foot-in-the-door phenomenon would be most likely to
A)
emphasize that his company is one of the largest in the insurance industry.
B)
promise a free gift to those who agree to purchase an insurance policy.
C)
ask customers to respond to a brief survey of their attitudes regarding life insurance.
D)
address customers by their first names.
E)
meet potential customers by paying them an unexpected visit at their homes.

92.
Cognitive dissonance theory is most helpful for understanding
A)
the mere exposure effect.
B)
group polarization.
C)
the fundamental attribution error.
D)
the foot-in-the-door phenomenon.
E)
the bystander effect.

93.
Kentaro hates to wear ties but wears one to his sister's wedding to avoid his family's disapproval. Kentaro's behavior exemplifies the importance of
A)
the mere exposure effect.
B)
informational social influence.
C)
normative social influence.
D)
social facilitation.
E)
the reciprocity norm.

94.
In Milgram's first study of obedience, the majority of “teachers” who were ordered to shock a “learner”
A)
refused to deliver even slight levels of shock.
B)
initially complied but refused to deliver more than slight levels of shock.
C)
complied until ordered to deliver intense levels of shock.
D)
complied fully and delivered the highest level of shock.
E)
refused to deliver shocks to all participants who expressed doubt about the experiment.

95.
How does the presence of observers affect a person's performance?
A)
It improves performance on unenjoyable tasks and hinders a person's performance on enjoyable tasks.
B)
It improves performance on poorly learned tasks and hinders a person's performance on well-learned tasks.
C)
It improves performance on physical tasks and hinders a person's performance on mental tasks.
D)
It improves performance on verbal tasks and hinders a person's performance on mathematical tasks.
E)
It improves performance on easy tasks and hinders a person's performance on difficult tasks.

96.
After an exciting football game in which the home team loses by one point, a crowd of fans throws bottles and begins to tear up the field. This behavior is best understood in terms of
A)
the just-world phenomenon.
B)
obedience.
C)
the bystander effect.
D)
social facilitation.
E)
deindividuation.

97.
An overwhelming desire for harmony in a decision-making group increases the probability of
A)
social facilitation.
B)
the mere exposure effect.
C)
the bystander effect.
D)
groupthink.
E)
the foot-in-the-door phenomenon.

98.
Refusing to hire qualified job applicants because of the color of their skin is to engage in
A)
stereotyping.
B)
deindividuation.
C)
discrimination.
D)
the fundamental attribution error.
E)
confirmation bias.

99.
A sense of social identity is most likely to promote
A)
social facilitation.
B)
the bystander effect.
C)
ingroup bias.
D)
deindividuation.
E)
cognitive dissonance.

100.
Twenty Wallonians were arrested for nonviolent crimes, whereas 20 Pireaneans were arrested for violent crimes. The tendency to judge that more crimes were committed by Pireaneans than by Wallonians best illustrates the power of
A)
ingroup bias.
B)
the mere exposure effect.
C)
the just-world phenomenon.
D)
deindividuation.
E)
vivid cases.

101.
After Manny's father refused to let him use the family car on Friday night, Manny let all the air out of the tires. His action is best explained in terms of the
A)
mere exposure effect.
B)
foot-in-the-door phenomenon.
C)
fundamental attribution error.
D)
bystander effect.
E)
frustration-aggression principle.

102.
Research on the effects of playing violent video games most clearly provides evidence that disconfirms the
A)
mere exposure effect.
B)
frustration-aggression principle.
C)
cognitive dissonance theory.
D)
catharsis hypothesis.
E)
just-world phenomenon.

103.
Makato, a 21-year-old university junior, is physically unattractive. Compared to good-looking students, Makato is more likely to
A)
be physically coordinated and athletic.
B)
have difficulty making a favorable impression on potential employers.
C)
become a loving and dependent parent.
D)
earn low grades in his college courses.
E)
be well liked by other male college students.

104.
Natasha and Dimitri have a fulfilling marital relationship because they readily confide their deepest hopes and fears to each other. This best illustrates the value of
A)
passionate love.
B)
deindividuation.
C)
social facilitation.
D)
self-disclosure.
E)
the mere exposure effect.

105.
When 68-year-old Mrs. Blake had a flat tire on a fairly isolated highway, she received help from a passerby in less than 10 minutes. One year later, she had a flat tire on a busy freeway and an hour elapsed before someone finally stopped to offer assistance. Mrs. Blake's experience best illustrates
A)
the reciprocity norm.
B)
the mere exposure effect.
C)
social responsibility.
D)
the bystander effect.
E)
the foot-in-the door phenomenon.

106.
A situation in which the individual pursuit of self-interest leads to collective destruction is known as
A)
a social trap.
B)
the self-serving bias.
C)
deindividuation.
D)
groupthink.
E)
ingroup bias.

107.
Pablo and Sabina argued bitterly about which of them should have use of the family car that night. Neither realized, however, that Sabina needed the car only in the early evening and that Pablo needed it only in the late evening. Pablo and Sabina's failure to resolve their argument for their mutual benefit best illustrates the dangers of
A)
superordinate goals.
B)
the mere exposure effect.
C)
ingroup bias.
D)
a win-lose orientation.
E)
GRIT.

108.
In 1963, President John F. Kennedy announced to the then Soviet Union that the United States would discontinue all atmospheric nuclear tests. The Soviet's positive response to this conciliatory gesture illustrated the potential value of
A)
mirror-image perceptions.
B)
the mere exposure effect.
C)
GRIT.
D)
the just-world phenomenon.
E)
superordinate goals

Answer Key

1.
D
2.
D
3.
B
4.
C
5.
B
6.
D
7.
C
8.
D
9.
C
10.
D
11.
A
12.
C
13.
D
14.
A
15.
C
16.
B
17.
A
18.
D
19.
E
20.
B
21.
C
22.
C
23.
E
24.
C
25.
A
26.
B
27.
B
28.
A
29.
C
30.
D
31.
A
32.
C
33.
C
34.
B
35.
D
36.
B
37.
E
38.
C
39.
A
40.
C
41.
C
42.
C
43.
C
44.
D
45.
D
46.
A
47.
D
48.
C
49.
D
50.
D
51.
C
52.
D
53.
A
54.
C
55.
D
56.
B
57.
C
58.
C
59.
D
60.
B
61.
D
62.
A
63.
A
64.
B
65.
B
66.
A
67.
D
68.
C
69.
D
70.
D
71.
B
72.
C
73.
D
74.
E
75.
C
76.
A
77.
E
78.
A
79.
A
80.
A
81.
D
82.
C
83.
C
84.
A
85.
D
86.
D
87.
D
88.
D
89.
C
90.
D
91.
C
92.
D
93.
C
94.
D
95.
E
96.
E
97.
D
98.
C
99.
C
100.
E
101.
E
102.
D
103.
B
104.
D
105.
D
106.
A
107.
D
108.
C