The question about authorship and the following controversy has a product of modern times, as the authorship was not questioned until the 1800s. At that time, the growing middle class refused …show more content…
The Anti-Stratfodians brought to light the absences in public records and other writings, claiming some reference to Shakespeare would have been made in the writings at some point. These explanations of silence press? that someone else wrote the plays, someone with metope? to conceal his or her true identity. In the mid-1800s ideas about other authors were brought forward. However, many of these were later dismissed due to the difficulty attributing details to alternative candidates. Shakespeare’s education or lack thereof is also used to question the true authorship of his works. Little information concerning what Shakespeare was taught at Stratford grammar school exists. This along with his ‘lost years’ allow for a great deal of speculation about his true …show more content…
Furthermore, these theres suggest that the author appears to have a dislike of lower classes. The author of the works also appear to have visited foreign countries, especially Italy, and other languages. Because William Shakespeare was born in a small town in the working class, there is not evidence of education beyond grammar school. Edward de Vere on the other hand was well taught and possessed a great deal of knowledge of the country and Italy, since he had traveled there. Although he died twelve years before Shakespeare, Oxfordians argue that the dates of many plays are not certain and could’ve been written during the de Vere’s lifetime. However, these are some of Shakespeare’s greatest plays such as “The Tempest” and “Macbeth” and were not likely to have been written while Vere was