I’m not referring to his claims on some people deserving to be slaves; I’m referring to his standards on a virtuous life. Aristotle Believes that “Acting virtuously constitutes a happy life” (Lear 158) but when he explains what constitutes a virtuous life and how to acquire said life; The Aristotelian viewpoint starts to resemble a social club rather than an ethical evaluation. To be virtuous, one must practice rational choice perfectly, have extensive life experience, and have a complete life within society. Not to mention never struggle with desire and always has perfect motives. To acquire virtue, one must have been lucky enough to be raised within a virtuous community or household. Aristotle also believes that virtue can’t be taught, well at least through argument; but instead through mimicking others and using their behavior to create new …show more content…
Aristotle didn’t give his ethics, much room to mature with society. Given that society has evolved, in the five thousand plus years since he walked the earth. To Aristotle “The ethical or political life is the active life within society” (Lear 174) and acting towards the good of “cities is a nobler [and] a more godlike thing” (Aristotle 4), but would he continue to defend this understanding if he was suddenly dropped into the 21st century? understandably, Aristotle couldn’t have predicted technology and the effects it would have on modern society. Technologies influence has changed the way we communicate, how we perceive our neighbors, and our relationship with greed; With the click of a button, we can speak to, know, and have whatever we want. Even the idea of community has become broader, to the point of being spread thin. With that being said, how can someone obtain eudaimonia in an egoistic society that praises vice? And wouldn’t self-preservation compromise the golden