a. presentation and disclosure
b. valuation or allocation
c. existence or occurrence
d. completeness
2. The completeness assertion would be violated if
a. disclosure in the statements of pledged receivables was inadequate
b. unbilled shipments occurred during the period
c. fictitious sales transactions were included in accounts receivable
d. the allowance for doubtful accounts was understated 2) The rights and obligations assertion applies to:
A: Transactions on accounts
3) Which of the following assertions is NOT made by management in placing an item in the financial statements?
a. Presentation and disclosure
b. Rights and obligations
c. Existence or occurrence
d. Direct controls
4) Section 11 of the Securities Act of 1933 uses the term material fact to limit the amount of information required. Under the Act, the standard used to determine an item’s materiality
a. is the average prudent investor
b. is the auditor's professional judgement
c. has been established by the SEC as a percent of net income or of total assets
d. may be found in FASB pronouncements
5) Individuals or entities the auditor knew or should have known and would rely on the audit report in making business and investment decisions are
a. foreseeable parties
b. third parties
c. foreseen beneficiaries
d. primary beneficiaries 6) Section 18 liability is relatively narrow in scope because it relates to a false or misleading statement in documents filed with the
A: SEC 7) Within generally accepted auditing standards, general standards relate primarily to a. the fairness of the financial statements
b. qualifications of the auditor and the quality of the auditor's work
c. qualifications of the auditor
d. the relationship between generally accepted auditing standards and accounting principles
7) Statements on