A&P I Review

Final Exam Review Packet
Name: _Susan Clark
Chapter 1: 1. | An investigator who conducts an experiment to determine how temperature changes affect the rate at which the heart beats is most likely a(an) A. | anatomist. | B. | physiologist. | C. | chemist. | D. | biochemist. | E. | physicist. | | 2. | The branch of science that deals with the structure of human body parts is called anatomy. | 3. | The branch of science that deals with the functions of human body parts is called Physiology. | 4. | The topics of human anatomy and physiology are difficult to separate because the structures of the body parts are closely related to their Functions. | 5. | The structure of a body part is closely related to its function. True False | 6. | All materials, including those of the human body, are composed of chemicals. True False | 7. | Which of the following lists illustrates the idea of increasing levels of organization? A. | cell, molecule, atom, organelle, macromolecule | B. | atom, molecule, macromolecule, cell, organelle | C. | atom, molecule, macromolecule, organelle, cell | D. | cell, atom, organelle, molecule, macromolecule | E. | cell, molecule, organelle, atom, macromolecule | | 8. | Which of the following includes all the others? A. | excretion | B. | digestion | C. | respiration | D. | metabolism | E. | absorption | | 9. | The traits that humans share with other organisms are called characteristics of life. True False | 10. | The ability of an organism to sense changes in its body is an example of A. | movement | B. | respiration | C. | responsiveness | D. | excretion | E. | absorption | | 11. | Metabolism is defined as A. | any individual process in the body. | B. | all the structures in the body. | C. | all of the homeostatic setpoints in the body. | D. | all of the chemical reactions in the body that break down and build up substances. | E. | The collection of all of the organs in the body and their parts. | | 12. | The building up phase of metabolism is called A. | negative feedback. | B. | catabolism. | C. | anabolism. | D. | reproduction. | E. | anatomy. | | 13. | The breaking down phase of metabolism is called A. | reproduction. | B. | growth. | C. | catabolism. | D. | anabolism. | E. | homeostasis. | | 14. | Metabolism is the sum total of all of the chemical reactions in the body that break substances down and build them up. | 15. | Incorporating substances into the body and changing them to chemically different forms is called A. | responsiveness. | B. | anabolism. | C. | catabolism. | D. | assimilation. | E. | reproduction. | | 16. | Respiration obtains oxygen, uses oxygen to release energy from foods and removes gaseous wastes. | 17. | Of the items listed, which is not required from the environment for the maintenance of life? A. | water | B. | food | C. | carbon dioxide | D. | pressure | E. | heat | | 18. | The most abundant chemical substance in the body is Water. | 19. | The weight of the air produces a force called atmospheric Pressure. | 20. | Requirements of humans do not include A. | water. | B. | foods. | C. | oxygen. | D. | light. | E. | pressure. | | 21. | Which of the following processes is not concerned with maintaining the life of an adult organism? A. | responsiveness | B. | movement | C. | reproduction | D. | metabolism | E. | assimilation | | 22. | Foods are substances that provide the body with necessary chemicals (nutrients) in addition to water. | 23. | Heat is a form of Energy_. | 24. | Heat is a form of energy. True False | 25. | Homeostasis refers to A. | changing external conditions. | B. | stable external conditions. | C. | changing internal conditions. | D. | maintaining internal conditions. | E. | all of the above. | | 26. | Homeostatic mechanisms do not include A. | receptors. | B. | positive feedback. | C. | effectors. | D. | a set point. | E. | negative feedback. | | 27. | Heat helps determine the rate of metabolic reactions. True False | 28. | Maintenance of a stable internal environment is called homeostasis. | 29. | Homeostatic mechanisms act through negative feedback. | 30. | Homeostatic mechanisms act through positive feedback. True False | 31. | Which of the following examples illustrates a homeostatic mechanism? A. | shivering in response to a drop in body temperature | B. | increasing body temperature during exercise | C. | decreasing body temperature during prolonged exposure to cold conditions | D. | dehydration from lack of water intake | E. | frostbite on exposure to cold | | 32. | Water is A. | the most abundant chemical in the body. | B. | a major component of the extracellular fluid. | C. | a component of the internal environment. | D. | a requirement of life. | E. | all of the above. | | 33. | Oxygen is a gas that makes up one-fifth of ordinary air. | 34. | The force on the outside of the body due to the weight of air above it is called atmospheric Pressure. | 35. | Receptors provide information about specific conditions (stimuli) in the internal environment. | 36. | Which term refers specifically to the structures that provide information about conditions in the internal environment? A. | setpoints | B. | effectors | C. | receptors | D. | homeostasis | E. | metabolism | | 37. | Effectors cause responses that alter conditions in the internal environment. | 38. | Which of the following directly cause the changes in the internal environment needed to maintain homeostasis? A. | receptors | B. | effectors | C. | setpoint | D. | intracellular fluid | E. | positive feedback | | 39. | Which of the following causes conditions in the body to move away from the normal state? A. | negative feedback | B. | homeostasis | C. | metabolism | D. | positive feedback | E. | setpoint | | 40. | Which of the following is true of positive feedback mechanisms? A. | They are the primary means of maintaining homeostasis. | B. | They stabilize conditions. | C. | They cause unstable conditions, at least temporarily. | D. | They maintain the internal environment. | E. | They move conditions toward a setpoint. | | 41. | The axial portion of the body includes A. | the cranial cavity only. | B. | the abdominopelvic and thoracic cavities only. | C. | the cranial cavity, vertebral canal, thoracic cavity and abdominopelvic cavity. | D. | the thoracic cavity only. | E. | the abdominopelvic cavity only. | | 42. | The diaphragm separates the thoracic and the abdominopelvic cavities. True False | 43. | The human organism can be divided into an axial portion and appendicular portion. True False | 44. | The mediastinum separates A. | the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. | B. | the thoracic cavity into right and left parts. | C. | the thoracic cavity from the pelvic cavity. | D. | the abdominal cavity from the pelvic cavity. | E. | the abdominal cavity into right and left parts. | | 45. | The heart, esophagus, trachea and thymus are located within the Thoracic. | 46. | Which of the following best describes the smaller cavities in the head? A. | the paranasal sinuses | B. | the oral cavity | C. | the nasal cavity | D. | the middle ear cavities | E. | all of the above | | 47. | The oral cavity contains the teeth and tongue. | 48. | The pelvic cavity is the part of the abdominopelvic cavity that contains the terminal portion of the large intestine, the urinary bladder and the internal reproductive organs. | 49. | Which of the following organs is found in the pelvic cavity? A. | urinary bladder | B. | kidneys | C. | liver | D. | spleen | E. | gallbladder | | 50. | The membrane on the surface of the lung is called the A. | visceral pleura. | B. | parietal pleura. | C. | visceral pericardium. | D. | parietal pericardium. | E. | visceral peritoneum. | | 51. | The organ systems responsible for integration and coordination are the nervous and endocrine systems. True False | 52. | Parietal membranes are attached to the surfaces of organs. True False | 53. | The digestive system filters wastes from the blood and maintains fluid and electrolyte balance. True False | 54. | The muscular system is responsible for body movements, maintenance of posture and production of body heat. True False | 55. | A part that is above another part is said to be A. | anterior. | B. | posterior. | C. | superior. | D. | inferior. | E. | distal. | | 56. | The ears are lateral to the eyes. True False | 57. | The elbow is distal to the wrist. True False | 58. | A section that separates the body into left and right portions is a A. | frontal section. | B. | transverse section. | C. | coronal section. | D. | sagittal section. | E. | horizontal section. | | 59. | When a body is in the anatomical position, it is A. | standing erect with the face forward | B. | standing erect with face turned to the side | C. | lying on the back with the face forward | D. | lying on the back with the face turned to the side | E. | standing erect with the upper limbs reaching over the head | |

Chapter 2: 1. | All of the food that we eat, liquids that we drink and medications that we take are A. | chemicals. | B. | vitamins. | C. | proteins. | D. | nucleic acids. | E. | carbohydrates. | | 2. | Understanding Chemistry is essential for understanding anatomy and physiology because body structures and functions result from chemical changes. | 3. | Chemistry is the branch of science that deals with the composition of matter. True False | 4. | Which of the following substances is not an element? A. | Iron | B. | Oxygen | C. | Water | D. | Carbon | E. | Hydrogen | | 5. | Matter is anything that has weight and takes up space. True False | 6. | Matter___________________ is defined as anything that has weight and takes up space. | 7. | All matter is composed of atoms of fundamental substances called __Atoms | 8. | All matter is composed of atoms of fundamental substances called ________________. A. | carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen | B. | carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, calcium | C. | carbon, hydrogen, calcium, nitrogen | D. | carbon, hydrogen, selenium, sodium | E. | sodium, calcium, nitrogen, selenium | | 9. | An element with an atomic number of 6 contains 12 protons. True False | 10. | At present, there are 90 known naturally occurring Elements | 11. | Which of the following is the number of elements living organisms require? A. | 10 | B. | 15 | C. | 20 | D. | 90 | E. | 144 | | 12. | The atomic weight of an atom of an element equals the number of neutrons in its nucleus. True False | 13. | The atomic _Weight__ of an atom of an element equals the number of protons and neutrons in its nucleus. | 14. | The number of protons in the atoms of a particular element is called the element's atomic Number | 15. | Each element is composed of characteristic tiny particles called _Atoms_. | 16. | The parts of an atom that lack an electrical charge are called Neutrons | 17. | When atoms combine with other atoms, interactions occur between their __Valence_shells. | 18. | The electrons of an atom occupy one or more areas of space called A. | bonds. | B. | shells. | C. | regions. | D. | ions. | E. | nuclei. | | 19. | The electrons in the outermost shell of an atom determine its A. | shape. | B. | weight. | C. | chemical behavior. | D. | mass. | E. | atomic number. | | 20. | The atoms of the isotopes of a particular element vary in the number of A. | electrons. | B. | protons. | C. | neutrons. | D. | nuclei. | E. | electron shells. | | 21. | Sodium and chloride ions readily combine because they have opposite charges. True False | 22. | An atom that has gained or lost electrons is called an ion. True False | 23. | Atoms that gain or lose electrons become electrically charged and are called ___Ions__. | 24. | The type of chemical bond formed when atoms share electrons is called _Covalent_. | 25. | The first electron shell of an atom can hold a maximum of A. | 1 electron. | B. | 2 electrons. | C. | 4 electrons. | D. | 8 electrons. | E. | 16 electrons. | | 26. | A covalent bond is formed by two atoms that share electrons. True False | 27. | The molecular formula for compounds like sodium chloride (NaCl) give the relative amounts of each element present. True False | 28. | The formula H2O means A. | an atom contains 2 hydrogen molecules and 1 oxygen molecule. | B. | an atom contains 1 hydrogen atom and 2 oxygen molecules. | C. | a molecule contains 2 hydrogen atoms and 1 oxygen atom. | D. | a molecule contains 1 hydrogen atom and 2 oxygen atoms. | E. | a molecule contains 2 hydrogen atoms and no oxygen atoms. | | 29. | If two pairs of electrons are shared, the resulting bond is called a double covalent bond. True False | 30. | The type of chemical bond formed when ions with opposite electrical charges are attracted to one another is called __Ionic_. | 31. | The attraction of the positive hydrogen end of a polar molecule to the negative nitrogen or oxygen end of another polar molecule is called a(an) A. | ionic bond. | B. | double bond. | C. | triple bond. | D. | hydrogen bond. | E. | covalent bond. | | 32. | When two or more atoms bond, they form a new kind of particle called a molecule. True False | 33. | When atoms of different elements bond, they form molecules called __Compound_. | 34. | A molecule of a compound always contains definite kinds and numbers of atoms. True False | 35. | Water is an example of a compound. True False | 36. | A molecular formula represents the numbers and types of atoms in a molecule. True False | 37. | A _Structual_ formula shows how atoms are joined and arranged in various molecules. | 38. | If the bonds of a reactant molecule break so that simpler molecules, atoms or ions form, the reaction is an exchange reaction. True False | 39. | A _Synthesis__ reaction is symbolized as A+B→AB. | 40. | A _Decomposition__ reaction is symbolized as AB→A+B. | 41. | A chemical reaction in which pairs of two different molecules trade positions is called a(an) _________ reaction. A. | decomposition | B. | exchange | C. | reversible | D. | synthesis | E. | irreversible | | 42. | When two or more atoms (reactants) bond to form a more complex structure (product) the reaction is called synthesis. True False | 43. | The opposite of a decomposition reaction is called a _Synthesis_ reaction. | 44. | A decomposition reaction can be symbolized as ________ . A. | A+B→C+D | B. | A+B→AB | C. | AB→A+B | D. | C+D→AB | E. | AB + CD → AC + BD | | 45. | A pH value indicates the hydrogen ion concentration in solutions, including body fluids. True False | 46. | pH is a measure of _Hydrogen_ ion concentration. | 47. | The pH scale ranges from 0 to 14. True False | 48. | A pH of _7_ is the midpoint of the pH scale and signifies equal numbers of hydrogen and hydroxide ions. | 49. | A solution that contains more hydrogen ions than hydroxide ions is _acid_. | 50. | Which term describes a solution that contains more hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions? A. | Basic | B. | Neutral | C. | Low pH | D. | Acidic | E. | None of the above | | 51. | Each whole number on the pH scale represents a ____ - fold difference in hydrogen ion concentration. A. | 15 | B. | 100 | C. | 20 | D. | 10 | E. | 2 | | 52. | As hydrogen ion concentration increases, the pH number A. | gets. | B. | gets smaller. | C. | stays the same. | D. | becomes negative. | E. | approaches 14. | | 53. | A solution that has a pH of 6 has ten times the hydrogen ion concentration of a solution with a pH of A. | 7. | B. | 5. | C. | 8. | D. | 2. | E. | 0.6. | | 54. | A substance that releases hydrogen ions in water is a base. True False | 55. | An _____________________ is defined as a substance that ionizes in water. | 56. | An acid is defined as an electrolyte that releases hydroxide ions (OH-) in water. True False | 57. | A person has alkalosis if the blood pH A. | rises above 7.0. | B. | drops below 7.0. | C. | rises above 7.4. | D. | drops below 7.4. | E. | steadily decreases. | | 58. | As a group, compounds that release ions when they dissolve in water are called A. | acids. | B. | bases. | C. | salts. | D. | electrolytes. | E. | solvents. | | 59. | Chemicals that resist changes in pH are called A. | buffers. | B. | electrolytes. | C. | acids. | D. | bases. | E. | none of the above. | | 60. | Buffers combine with hydrogen ions when H+ is in excess or they donate hydroxide ions when H+ is depleted. True False | 61. | __Buffers__ are chemicals that resist changes in pH. | 62. | A salt is a compound composed of oppositely charged ions. True False | 63. | At the cellular level of organization, biology becomes the study of A. | organs. | B. | chemistry. | C. | tissues. | D. | organ systems. | E. | human populations. | | 64. | Which of the following chemicals is not an inorganic substance? A. | Water | B. | Protein | C. | Sodium chloride | D. | Carbon dioxide | E. | Oxygen | | 65. | Many inorganic substances dissociate in water to release ions. True False | 66. | Organic substances always contain the elements hydrogen and __Carbon_. | 67. | Inorganic substances that usually dissociate in water are called A. | organic compounds. | B. | non-electrolytes. | C. | electrolytes. | D. | lipids. | E. | carbohydrates. | | 68. | Water accounts for 2/3 of the weight of an adult human. True False | 69. | _water_ is the most abundant compound in living material. | 70. | Carbon dioxide is A. | inhaled in large quantities from the environment. | B. | a waste product of metabolic processes. | C. | an element | D. | a salt. | E. | an electrolyte. | | 71. | Cellular organelles use oxygen to release energy from glucose. True False | 72. | Which of the following is not organic? A. | A carbohydrate | B. | A protein | C. | A lipid | D. | Carbon dioxide | E. | A nucleic acid | | 73. | The different types of carbohydrates do not include A. | monosaccharides. | B. | disaccharides. | C. | proteins. | D. | polysaccharides. | E. | glucose. | | 74. | The building blocks of fat molecules are amino acids. True False | 75. | __Fats_ are lipids used primarily to store energy for cellular activities. | 76. | Cholesterol is a protein. True False | 77. | Steroid molecules have four connected rings of carbon atoms. True False | 78. | The building blocks of proteins are amino acids. True False | 79. | _Nucleotides__ are the building blocks of nucleic acids. | 80. | Proteins include DNA and RNA. True False |
Chapter 3: 1. | Cells in different tissues vary considerably. Which of the following determines a cell's specialized function? A. | The number of cells of that type. | B. | Size. | C. | Shape. | D. | Which genes it uses. | E. | The requirements of the body in a particular situation. | | 2. | An adult human body has about A. | 200 million cells. | B. | 750 million cells. | C. | 1 trillion cells. | D. | 75 trillion cells. | E. | 1 quadrillion cells. | | 3. | Endoplasmic reticulum is best described as a A. | formless liquid. | B. | cellular inclusion. | C. | network of interconnected membranes. | D. | thread that sticks out from the cell membrane. | E. | the genetic headquarters of the cell. | | 4. | Ribosomes are composed largely of protein and A. | RNA. | B. | DNA. | C. | lipid. | D. | carbohydrate. | E. | water. | | 5. | A nucleolus is composed largely of A. | RNA and DNA. | B. | RNA and lipid. | C. | DNA and protein. | D. | DNA and lipid. | E. | RNA and protein. | | 6. | Vesicles are formed by folding of the A. | lysosomal membrane. | B. | nuclear membrane. | C. | cell membrane. | D. | endoplasmic reticulum. | E. | Golgi apparatus. | | 7. | A composite cell has three basic parts. They are the A. | nucleus, ribosomes and mitochondria. | B. | cell membrane, nucleus and cytoplasm. | C. | cell membrane, ion channels and cytoplasm. | D. | nucleus, Golgi apparatus and endoplasmic reticulum. | E. | centrioles, mitochondria and chloroplasts. | | 8. | Clusters of ribosomes in the cytoplasm are called A. | mitochondria. | B. | inclusions. | C. | polysomes. | D. | polysaccharides. | E. | microtubules. | | 9. | Two functions of the cell membrane are A. | housing the DNA and accessing the DNA. | B. | enabling the cell to communicate and attach to other cells. | C. | to produce and break down secretions. | D. | to provide cellular energy and to produce mitochondria. | E. | to move the cell and help it to divide. | | 10. | Which of the following is not a component of the cell membrane's structure? A. | Proteins | B. | Lipids | C. | Cholesterol | D. | Glycerol | E. | Glycogen | | 11. | The basic framework of a cell membrane is a triple layer of lipid molecules. True False | 12. | Genetic material (DNA) is a cellular component True False | 13. | The interior of a cell membrane is oily because A. | the membrane drinks in oils. | B. | the phospholipid tails are made of fatty acids. | C. | the phospholipid heads are made of fatty acids. | D. | the secretory network passes oils to the outside of the cell. | E. | the secretory network captures oils from outside the cell. | | 14. | A lysosome is an example of a cellular organelle. True False | 15. | Membrane proteins are classified by their A. | position. | B. | size. | C. | abundance. | D. | amino acid diversity. | E. | oiliness. | | 16. | Mitochondria manufacture proteins. True False | 17. | A glycoprotein that extends from the surface of a cell may A. | indicate whether protein synthesis is taking place in the cell. | B. | combine with other glycoproteins to form cilia. | C. | mark the cell as belonging to a particular type of tissue or organ in a particular person. | D. | dip back inside the cell if a person contracts an infection. | E. | form a lipid bilayer. | | 18. | In anaphase of mitosis, centromeres and duplicated parts of chromosomes separate. True False | 19. | The rods and tubules of the cytoskeleton are built of A. | carbohydrates. | B. | cilia. | C. | lipids. | D. | protein. | E. | endoplasmic reticulum. | | 20. | A cell that secretes abundant proteins, such as a cell in the pancreas secreting insulin, would have extra nuclei. True False | 21. | Which type of cell has many mitochondria? A. | Red blood cell | B. | Fat | C. | Nerve | D. | Skin | E. | Muscle | | 22. | The activity that takes place on ribosomes is A. | protein synthesis. | B. | DNA synthesis. | C. | carbohydrate synthesis. | D. | energy acquisition. | E. | cell division. | | 23. | The organelle that houses enzymes that degrade cellular debris is the A. | lysosome. | B. | peroxisome. | C. | mitochondrion. | D. | nucleus. | E. | Golgi apparatus. | | 24. | A type of cell that has a flagellum is a(n) A. | egg. | B. | sperm. | C. | nerve cell. | D. | muscle cell. | E. | white blood cell. | | 25. | A cell membrane is composed mostly of A. | DNA and RNA. | B. | carbohydrates and lipids. | C. | proteins and nucleic acids. | D. | sugars and starches. | E. | proteins and lipids. | | 26. | A structure that transports secretions from the rough ER to the Golgi apparatus is a vesicle. True False | 27. | Attached to the surfaces of rough endoplasmic reticulum are A. | nucleoli. | B. | ribosomes. | C. | chromosomes. | D. | lysosomes. | E. | cell membranes. | | 28. | The process that kidneys use to cleanse blood is A. | filtration. | B. | active transport. | C. | exocytosis. | D. | facilitated diffusion. | E. | protein synthesis. | | 29. | The Golgi apparatus contains DNA. True False | 30. | A ligand is a molecule that enters a cell using A. | active transport. | B. | exocytosis. | C. | receptor-mediated endocytosis. | D. | pinocytosis. | E. | passive diffusion. | | 31. | An organelle that is a fluid-filled sac with inner partitions studded with enzymes is a mitochondrion. True False | 32. | Interphase is a "time out" in the cell cycle, when the cell rests its synthetic activities. True False | 33. | A centrosome consists of two structures called A. | centrioles. | B. | centromeres. | C. | nuclei. | D. | vesicles. | E. | chromosomes. | | 34. | If the concentration of glucose in the water outside of a cell is higher than the concentration inside A. | water will tend to enter the cell by osmosis. | B. | water will tend to leave the cell by osmosis. | C. | glucose will tend to enter the cell by osmosis. | D. | glucose will tend to leave the cell by osmosis. | E. | nucleoli. | | 35. | Movement of molecules through a membrane by filtration depends upon A. | osmotic pressure. | B. | barometric pressure. | C. | atmospheric pressure. | D. | oncotic pressure. | E. | hydrostatic pressure. | | 36. | If a solution outside of a cell contains a greater concentration of dissolved particles than the contents of the cell, the solution is said to be A. | isotonic. | B. | iso-osmotic. | C. | hypertonic. | D. | hypotonic. | E. | isometric. | | 37. | Which of the following cellular processes requires the greatest expenditure of cellular energy? A. | Diffusion. | B. | Osmosis. | C. | Active transport. | D. | Dialysis. | E. | Passive transport. | | 38. | Which of the following processes uses specific carrier molecules? A. | Phagocytosis. | B. | Pinocytosis. | C. | Active transport. | D. | Dialysis. | E. | Diffusion. | | 39. | Mitochondria A. | manufacture protein. | B. | release energy from glucose molecules. | C. | digest lipid molecules. | D. | are in the nucleus. | E. | can substitute for nuclei. | | 40. | Which of the following is isotonic to red blood cells? A. | 0.9 percent NaCl solution. | B. | Distilled water. | C. | 0.9 percent glucose solution. | D. | 0.5 percent glucose solution. | E. | 1.4 percent galactose solution. | | 41. | In osmosis, water diffuses down its concentration gradient. True False | 42. | A 5 percent solution of glucose is isotonic to human cells. True False | 43. | The movement of molecules from where they are not highly concentrated to where they are highly concentrated is called diffusion. True False | 44. | The process by which glucose can pass through a membrane using special carrier proteins is called A. | facilitated transport. | B. | osmosis. | C. | active transport. | D. | endocytosis. | E. | diffusion. | | 45. | The mechanism of membrane transport that requires an input of energy is A. | passive transport. | B. | active transport. | C. | facilitated diffusion. | D. | passive diffusion. | E. | active diffusion. | | 46. | The process that moves sodium ions from where they are not very concentrated inside a cell to where they are much more concentrated outside the cell is called A. | osmosis. | B. | facilitated diffusion. | C. | active transport. | D. | exocytosis. | E. | diffusion. | | 47. | Tiny droplets of fluid can enter and cross a cell membrane from the outside in a process called A. | phagocytosis. | B. | active transport. | C. | passive transport. | D. | pinocytosis. | E. | receptor-mediated endocytosis. | | 48. | The series of changes that a cell undergoes from when it forms to when it divides is called A. | mitosis. | B. | interphase. | C. | apoptosis. | D. | the cell cycle. | E. | cell death. | | 49. | Nerve cells release neurotransmitters using A. | exocytosis. | B. | endocytosis. | C. | pinocytosis. | D. | phagocytosis. | E. | cytocytosis. | | 50. | An organelle type that is built of microtubules and fringes the free surfaces of certain cell types is a A. | cilium. | B. | nucleolus. | C. | vesicle. | D. | endoplasmic reticulum. | E. | cell tail. | | 51. | A microfilament is made of tiny rods of actin protein. True False | 52. | White blood cells that take in particles and cellular debris are termed A. | pinocytes. | B. | erythrocytes. | C. | phagocytes. | D. | ligands. | E. | endocytes. | | 53. | Adrenoleukodystrophy is an inborn error of metabolism that causes brain degeneration starting at age 5 or 6. The defect is in peroxisomes. This is an organelle that A. | contains DNA. | B. | enables a cell to extract energy from nutrient molecules. | C. | enables a cell to move. | D. | houses several types of enzymes. | E. | stores fat. | | 54. | Centromeres pull apart during A. | anaphase. | B. | prophase. | C. | metaphase. | D. | telophase. | E. | apoptosis. | | 55. | A typical cell has ion channels that number in the A. | hundreds. | B. | thousands. | C. | millions. | D. | billions. | E. | trillions. | | 56. | Too infrequent cell division can lead to cancer, whereas too frequent cell division can delay wound healing. True False | 57. | Which of the following lists includes the phases of mitosis in the correct sequence? A. | Prophase, metaphase, telophase, anaphase | B. | Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase | C. | Telophase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase | D. | Anaphase, metaphase, prophase, telophase | E. | Meiosis, mitosis, apoptosis | | | | 58. | Because of mitosis and cytoplasmic division, the resulting cells have A. | Identical chromosomes but different DNA information. | B. | Identical DNA information but different chromosomes. | C. | Identical chromosomes and identical DNA information. | D. | Different chromosomes and different DNA information. | E. | Random numbers of chromosomes. | | 59. | Cells that retain the ability to divide without specializing are called A. | progenitor cells. | B. | apoptotic cells. | C. | stem cells. | D. | differentiated cells. | E. | mitotic cells. | | 60. | During the metaphase of mitosis, chromosomes A. | line up between the centrioles. | B. | unwind to form chromatin. | C. | migrate to opposite poles of the cell. | D. | are surrounded by a nuclear membrane. | E. | are selectively released from the cell. | | 61. | Apoptosis is A. | a form of secretion. | B. | a form of cell division. | C. | an abnormal form of development. | D. | a response to injury. | E. | a form of cell death. | | 62. | Which of the following is not a characteristic step in a cell undergoing apoptosis? A. | The cell rounds up and bulges. | B. | The cell retains the ability to divide continuously. | C. | Chromatin condenses and enzymes cut the chromosomes into equal-sized pieces. | D. | The cell shatters into membrane enclosed fragments. | E. | The cell dies. | | 63. | Which of the following describes a cleavage furrow? A. | Cellular constriction that occurs during interphase. | B. | Cellular constriction that occurs towards the end of mitosis. | C. | Cellular constriction that forms four cells from one. | D. | A partitioning of the nucleus. | E. | Cellular constriction that forms as mitosis begins. | | | | 64. | During the metaphase of mitosis, chromosomes line up between the two centrioles. True False | 65. | The phases of the cell cycle are A. | interphase, mitosis and cytokinesis. | B. | interphase, mitosis and meiosis. | C. | prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase. | D. | intraphase, meiosis and telophase. | E. | different in different cell types. | | 66. | Spread of cancer cells beyond the tissue where they originated is called A. | mitosis. | B. | apoptosis. | C. | metastasis. | D. | angiogenesis. | E. | meiosis. | | 67. | Specialized structures within cells are called organelles. True False | 68. | A neuron and an astrocyte can descend from the same progenitor cell. True False | 69. | In terms of cell lineages, a blood cell is more closely related to a bone cell than to a skin cell. True False | 70. | Tina has a sunburn. A week later, the skin on her burnt shoulder peels away. The cells are undergoing A. | apoptosis. | B. | mitosis. | C. | metastasis. | D. | secretion. | E. | signal transduction. | |

Chapter 4: 1. | Genes carry information that instructs a cell to A. | make glycogen. | B. | make specific proteins from amino acids. | C. | use energy. | D. | convert nucleic acids into proteins. | E. | take in proteins from the cell membrane. | | 2. | Special proteins called enzymes control the reactions of metabolism. True False | 3. | Anabolism includes A. | the buildup of larger molecules from smaller ones, requiring energy. | B. | all processes required to maintain life. | C. | processes that decompose structures in cells. | D. | the breakdown of larger molecules into smaller ones, releasing energy. | E. | the taking in of proteins from the cell membrane. | | 4. | In dehydration synthesis A. | larger molecules are decomposed into smaller ones. | B. | monosaccharides are joined. | C. | water molecules become joined to monosaccharide molecules. | D. | the molecule is decomposed into carbon dioxide and water. | E. | a person develops constipation. | | 5. | Catalysis is the speeding of a chemical reaction. True False | 6. | A piece of bread held in the mouth begins to taste sweet as large carbohydrate molecules are broken down into smaller sugars. These reactions are examples of A. | DNA guiding the production of a particular protein. | B. | dehydration synthesis. | C. | anabolism. | D. | DNA synthesis. | E. | catabolism. | | 7. | A sucrose molecule decomposing to yield a glucose molecule and a fructose molecule A. | is an example of dehydration synthesis. | B. | releases a water molecule. | C. | uses a water molecule. | D. | only occurs if a person follows a high carbohydrate diet. | E. | can also decompose to yield two glucose molecules. | | 8. | An example of catabolism is A. | the formation of water. | B. | hydrolysis. | C. | dehydration synthesis. | D. | two amino acids forming a dipeptide. | E. | building a cell membrane. | | 9. | Anabolism and catabolism together constitute A. | metabolism. | B. | protein synthesis. | C. | dehydration synthesis. | D. | hydrolysis. | E. | digestion. | | 10. | Enzymes A. | increase activation energy. | B. | slow metabolic reactions. | C. | are mostly nucleic acids. | D. | do not change as they control reactions. | E. | are consumed in reactions. | | 11. | Almost all enzymes are proteins but a few are A. | DNA. | B. | carbohydrates. | C. | RNA. | D. | triglycerides. | E. | lipids. | | 12. | Enzymes enable chemical reactions in organisms to proceed fast enough to sustain life by A. | raising the activation energy. | B. | lowering the activation energy. | C. | creating more efficient metabolic pathways. | D. | bringing energy in the form of ATP molecules into cells. | E. | sending ATP molecules out of cells. | | 13. | Each enzyme acts only on a particular chemical called its A. | gene. | B. | catalyst. | C. | activator. | D. | complement. | E. | substrate. | | 14. | The enzyme catalase acts on the substrate A. | oxygen. | B. | hydrogen. | C. | hydrogen peroxide. | D. | peroxidase. | E. | cholesterol. | | 15. | Enzymes are nucleic acids that promote specific chemical reactions. True False | 16. | The part of an enzyme that combines with a specific part of the substrate is called the A. | passive site. | B. | active site. | C. | passive diffusion. | D. | nucleus. | E. | co-factor. | | 17. | Which of the following describes the steps in the correct order for an enzyme-catalyzed reaction? A. | Substrate, enzyme, enzyme-substrate complex, product+enzyme molecule | B. | Enzyme, substrate, product, enzyme-substrate complex+enzyme molecule | C. | Product, enzyme-substrate complex, enzyme, substrate+enzyme molecule | D. | Enzyme-substrate complex, enzyme, substrate, product+ enzyme molecule | E. | Enzyme, product, enzyme-product complex, substrate | | 18. | The active site of an enzyme is the part that A. | temporarily combines with the eventual product of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction. | B. | temporarily combines with a specific part of the substrate, forming an enzyme-substrate complex. | C. | temporarily combines with a specific part of another enzyme molecule to speed up an enzyme-catalyzed reaction. | D. | helps to slow down an enzyme-catalyzed reaction. | E. | must be frequently replaced. | | 19. | A nonprotein component with which some enzymes must combine in order to be active is called a co-factor. True False | 20. | A protein that is altered by exposure to certain chemicals, heat, extremes of pH, electricity, or radiation, is said to be A. | unnatural. | B. | genetically modified. | C. | denatured. | D. | mutated. | E. | reincarnated. | | 21. | Cells burn glucose in a process called oxidation. True False | 22. | Oxidation is a process that forms bonds between the atoms of molecules. True False | 23. | Most metabolic processes use chemical energy. True False | 24. | The reactions of anaerobic respiration occur in the A. | cytosol. | B. | mitochondria. | C. | nucleus. | D. | Golgi apparatus. | E. | vesicles. | | 25. | Cellular respiration occurs in three distinct, yet interconnected series of reactions. Which of the following gives the correct order of these reactions? A. | Electron transport chain, glycolysis and citric acid cycle | B. | Glycolysis, electron transport chain and citric acid cycle | C. | Citric acid cycle, glycolysis and electron transport chain | D. | Glycolysis, citric acid cycle and electron transport chain | E. | Electron transport chain, citric acid cycle, glycolysis | | 26. | Which of the following substances becomes more abundant during cellular respiration? A. | oxygen. | B. | glucose. | C. | sucrose. | D. | glycogen. | E. | ATP. | | 27. | An ATP molecule that loses its terminal phosphate becomes A. | AMP. | B. | cyclic AMP. | C. | a glucose molecule. | D. | ADP. | E. | an activated ATP. | | 28. | During the anaerobic phase of cellular respiration, one molecule of glucose A. | is broken down to yield two molecules of pyruvic acid. | B. | combines with another to yield one molecule of pyruvic acid. | C. | is converted into a molecule of pyruvic acid. | D. | is broken down to yield one molecule of pyruvic acid and one molecule of lactic acid. | E. | remains unchanged. | | 29. | An ATP molecule consists of an adenine, a ribose and three phosphates. True False | 30. | The part of an ATP molecule that holds the energy used in metabolism is A. | the sugar. | B. | the nitrogen-containing base. | C. | the phosphate bonds. | D. | the amino acid. | E. | the adenine. | | 31. | Glycolysis is referred to as the ____________ phase of cellular respiration because it does not require oxygen. A. | anaerobic | B. | aerobic | C. | probiotic | D. | pyruvic | E. | deoxygenic | | 32. | For each molecule of glucose that is decomposed completely, up to _______ molecules of ATP can be produced. A. | 34 | B. | 38 | C. | 25 | D. | 3 | E. | 100 | | 33. | The organelle that houses the reactions of aerobic respiration is the A. | mitochondrion. | B. | nucleus. | C. | Golgi apparatus. | D. | lysosome. | E. | oxysome. | | 34. | The two molecules that enter the citric acid cycle are a A. | two 3-carbon compounds and 38 ATPs. | B. | 4-carbon compound and an acetyl CoA. | C. | 2-carbon compound and 4-carbon acetyl CoA. | D. | a pyruvic acid and a glucose. | E. | glucose and a fructose. | | 35. | Of the 38 molecules of ATP generated in one round of the reactions of cellular respiration, only two come from glycolysis. True False | 36. | Complete oxidation of glucose results in nitrogen and water. True False-Carbon Dioxide | 37. | A metabolic pathway is a particular sequence of enzyme-controlled reactions. True False | 38. | A metabolic pathway is a sequence of enzyme-catalyzed reactions. True False | 39. | A rate-limiting enzyme is typically the first enzyme in a series. This position is important because A. | if the reaction stops, the enzyme will have a chance to act. | B. | the first enzyme is the fastest in the pathway. | C. | the enzymes lose energy farther along the metabolic pathway. | D. | a rate-limiting enzyme that acts later in the pathway could lead to build up of an intermediate chemical. | E. | the enzyme is destroyed farther along the pathway. | | 40. | The parts of a DNA molecule that contain the genetic information for making particular proteins are the A. | nitrogenous bases. | B. | sugars. | C. | amino acids. | D. | triglycerides. | E. | phosphates. | | 41. | Genes pass to the next generation in eggs and sperm. True False | 42. | A genome is a section of DNA in which the nitrogenous base sequence encodes a specific sequence of amino acids. True False | 43. | The proportion of the human genome that encodes protein is about ___ percent. A. | 98. | B. | 50. | C. | 30. | D. | 10. | E. | 2. | | 44. | The genetic code A. | is a sequence of amino acids that instructs cells how to make specific nucleic acids. | B. | is a sequence of nucleic acid bases that instructs cells how to make specific protein molecules. | C. | is the sequence of nucleus, rough ER, smooth ER, and the Golgi apparatus. | D. | is a sequence of proteins embedded in the cell membrane. | E. | is a sequence of amino acids and DNA bases. | | 45. | All of the DNA in a cell constitutes the A. | gene. | B. | nucleus. | C. | amino acid code. | D. | genome. | E. | proteome. | | 46. | A DNA strand has the sequence T, C, G, A, T, C. The sequence of the complementary strand is A. | T, C, G, A, T, C. | B. | A, G, C, T, A, G. | C. | U, C, G, A, U, C. | D. | A, G, C, U, A, G. | E. | C, T, A, G, C, T. | | 47. | The complementary base pairs in DNA are A. | A with G and C with T. | B. | A with G and C with U. | C. | A with A, G with G, C with C, and T with T. | D. | A with T and G with C. | E. | random. | | 48. | A DNA molecule A. | is twisted into a triple helix. | B. | is composed of joined nucleotides. | C. | is single-stranded. | D. | contains RNA. | E. | is globular shaped. | | 49. | DNA replicates by A. | the double helix separating and pulling in new complementary bases. | B. | creating an entirely new double helix. | C. | exiting the cell and bringing in new DNA bases. | D. | using RNA to manufacture protein molecules. | E. | shattering into pieces that reproduce themselves and attach at random. | | 50. | If a strand of DNA molecule contained the base sequence C, T, A, G, C, the complementary strand would contain the base sequence A. | A, G, C, T, A. | B. | G, A, T, C, G. | C. | C, T, A, G, C. | D. | T, G, C, A, T. | E. | G, C, A, T, C. | | 51. | The four nitrogenous bases in DNA are adenine, cytosine, guanine and uracil. True FalseRNA…DNA is thymine | 52. | The transfer of genetic information from the nucleus into the cytoplasm is a function of A. | DNA molecules. | B. | ribosomal RNA. | C. | messenger RNA. | D. | transfer RNA. | E. | the energy level of the cell. | | 53. | If a DNA strand has the organic base sequence T, T, A, C, G, A, the corresponding base sequence of a messenger RNA molecule would be A. | A, A, U, G, C, U. | B. | A, A, T, G, C, T. | C. | T, T, A, C, G, A. | D. | U, U, T, G, C, T. | E. | A, G, C, A, T, T. | | 54. | During protein synthesis, amino acids are positioned in the proper sequence by molecules of A. | ribosomal RNA. | B. | transfer RNA. | C. | messenger RNA. | D. | nuclear RNA. | E. | DNA. | | 55. | Copying of the information in DNA into RNA, which can exit the nucleus is called A. | translation. | B. | deamination. | C. | transcription. | D. | replication. | E. | transduction. | | 56. | RNA molecules differ from DNA molecules in several ways. (choose the best answer) A. | RNA molecules are single-stranded, their nucleotides include the sugar ribose and the nucleotide uracil. | B. | RNA molecules are double-stranded, their nucleotides include the sugar ribose and the nucleotide uracil. | C. | RNA molecules are single-stranded, their nucleotides include the sugar deoxyribose and the nucleotide uracil. | D. | RNA molecules are double-stranded, their nucleotides include the sugar deoxyribose and the nucleotide uracil. | E. | RNA molecules are triple-stranded, their nucleotides include the sugar glucose and the nucleotide uracil. | | 57. | A codon is a set of three nucleotides of an mRNA molecule that correspond to a particular amino acid. True False | 58. | Translation is the assembly of an amino acid chain according to the sequence of base triplets in a transfer RNA molecule. True False | 59. | The anticodon sequence is part of a transfer RNA. True False | 60. | All mutations are harmful. True False |

Chapter 5: 1. | Which of the following is not one of the four basic types of body tissues? A. | Epithelial tissue | B. | Connective tissue | C. | Eye tissue | D. | Muscle tissue | E. | Nervous tissue | | 2. | A basement membrane anchors A. | muscle tissue to nervous tissue. | B. | epithelial tissue to connective tissue. | C. | connective tissue to muscle tissue. | D. | brain tissue to nervous tissue. | E. | blood cells to plasma. | | 3. | Epithelial tissue functions in A. | secretion. | B. | absorption. | C. | protection. | D. | excretion. | E. | all of these. | | 4. | The tissue through which gases are exchanged between the blood and the air in the lungs is A. | stratified squamous epithelium. | B. | simple squamous epithelium. | C. | simple cuboidal epithelium. | D. | simple columnar epithelium. | E. | stratified columnar epithelium. | | 5. | The tissue that forms the inner lining of the respiratory passages is A. | pseudostratified. | B. | ciliated. | C. | mucus-secreting. | D. | columnar epithelium. | E. | all of these. | | 6. | A carcinoma is a cancer originating from A. | epithelium. | B. | connective tissue. | C. | muscle tissue. | D. | nervous tissue. | E. | bone. | | 7. | The type of epithelium that lines the urinary bladder and many urinary passageways is A. | squamous. | B. | cuboidal. | C. | columnar. | D. | transitional. | E. | pseudostratified. | | 8. | Usually epithelial tissues do not have blood vessels. True False | 9. | A single layer of flattened epithelium would constitute the tissue called __________________. | 10. | Most organs of the digestive system have an inner lining composed of the tissue called _________________________________. | 11. | Tendons and ligaments are composed primarily of A. | adipose tissue. | B. | dense connective tissue. | C. | muscle tissue. | D. | areolar tissue. | E. | epithelial tissue. | | 12. | Cartilage tissues are likely to be slow in healing following an injury because A. | cartilage cells cannot divide. | B. | cartilage tissues lack direct blood supplies. | C. | the intercellular matrix is semisolid. | D. | cartilage cells are surrounded by fluids. | E. | they don't function often. | | 13. | Bone cells are arranged in concentric circles around longitudinal tubes in cylinder-shaped units called A. | osteons. | B. | central canals. | C. | lacunae. | D. | canaliculi. | E. | lamellae. | | 14. | Permanent wrinkling of skin is usually due to changes caused by excessive exposure to A. | water. | B. | heat. | C. | dry air. | D. | sunlight. | E. | collagen. | | 15. | The tissue that constitutes the outermost layer of the skin is a type of connective tissue. True False | 16. | Bone cells are also called osteocytes. True False | 17. | Bone cells (osteocytes) are arranged in concentric circles around longitudinal tubes (central canals). True False | 18. | Blood is composed of red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets that are suspended in a fluid intercellular matrix called plasma. True False | 19. | The most common cells found in connective tissues are called _________________________. | 20. | Cartilage cells (chondrocytes) occupy small chambers called __________________________. | 21. | The intervertebral discs that separate the individual parts of the backbone are composed of ____________________________. | 22. | The intercellular material that separates connective tissue cells is called ___________________. | 23. | Membranes lining body cavities that lack openings to the outside are called A. | synovial membranes. | B. | mucous membranes. | C. | serous membranes. | D. | cutaneous membranes. | E. | cell membranes. | | 24. | Of the four major types of membranes, the one consisting of fibrous connective tissue overlying loose connective tissue is A. | synovial membrane. | B. | serous membrane. | C. | mucous membrane. | D. | cutaneous membrane. | E. | cell membrane. | | 25. | Since an epithelial membrane is composed of two or more kinds of tissues, it is an example of a(an) ___________________________________. | 26. | The muscle tissue that can be consciously controlled is A. | smooth muscle tissue. | B. | skeletal muscle tissue. | C. | intercalated muscle tissue. | D. | cardiac muscle tissue. | E. | none of these. | | 27. | Cardiac muscle is found in the wall of the A. | stomach. | B. | intestine. | C. | urinary bladder. | D. | heart. | E. | blood vessels. | | 28. | Smooth muscle is found in the wall of the A. | stomach. | B. | intestine. | C. | kidney. | D. | kidney and liver. | E. | stomach and intestine. | | 29. | Which of the following cell types are least likely to reproduce? A. | Endothelial cells that line the digestive system. | B. | Fibroblasts of connective tissue. | C. | Skeletal muscle cells. | D. | Red bone marrow cells. | E. | Epithelial cells of the outer layer of the skin. | | 30. | When cardiac muscle cells are damaged by a heart attack, they are usually replaced by A. | new cardiac muscle cells. | B. | new smooth muscle cells. | C. | connective tissue cells. | D. | epithelial cells. | E. | nerve cells. | | 31. | A skeletal muscle fiber contains many nuclei. True False | 32. | Muscle tissue conducts nerve impulses from one neuron to another and coordinates body activities. True False | 33. | The primary characteristic of muscle tissues is their ability to ____________. | 34. | The band located where two cardiac muscle cells join is called a(an) ______________. | 35. | Which of the following is not a characteristic of nerve tissue? A. | It is found in the brain, spinal cord and nerves. | B. | It contains cells that respond by transmitting impulses. | C. | Its intercellular spaces are filled with collagen. | D. | Its functional cells are sensitive to changes in their surroundings. | E. | Some of its cells send electrochemical messages. | | 36. | A neuron is a type of neuroglia. True False | 37. | A nerve cell can also be called a(an) _____________________________. Chapter 6: 1. | An organ contains A. | skin and bones. | B. | two or more tissues grouped together that function together. | C. | at least four tissues grouped together that function together. | D. | one variety of each of the four tissue types. | E. | all one type of tissue. | | 2. | The human integumentary system includes A. | skin, nails, hair follicles, and glands. | B. | just the skin. | C. | the epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous layer. | D. | muscles and bones. | E. | skin, hooves, and horns. | | 3. | Nerve fibers scattered throughout the dermis are associated with A. | hair, oil glands, and sweat glands. | B. | bone, tendons, and muscles. | C. | the subcutaneous layer. | D. | muscles, glands, and sensory receptors. | E. | fingernails and toenails. | | 4. | Nerve fibers scattered throughout the dermis are associated with A. | hair, oil glands, and sweat glands. | B. | bone, tendons, and muscles. | C. | the subcutaneous layer. | D. | muscles, glands, and sensory receptors. | E. | fingernails and toenails. | | 5. | Which of the following is not correct concerning the skin? A. | The dermis is usually thicker than the epidermis. | B. | The epidermis is composed of stratified squamous epithelium. | C. | The subcutaneous layer is between the dermis and the epidermis. | D. | The dermis contains smooth muscle and nerve tissue. | E. | The skin contains some immune cells. | | 6. | As cells are pushed from the deeper part of the epidermis toward the surface A. | they divide continually. | B. | their supply of nutrients improves. | C. | they die. | D. | they become dermal cells. | E. | they become cancerous. | | 7. | The skin A. | retards water loss from deeper tissues. | B. | excretes wastes. | C. | regulates body temperature. | D. | synthesizes vitamin D. | E. | all of these. | | 8. | The major blood vessels that supply skin cells are found in the A. | epidermis. | B. | epidermis and dermis. | C. | dermis. | D. | subcutaneous layer. | E. | bone. | | 9. | Skin cancer cells are most likely to develop from A. | pigmented epithelial cells. | B. | pigmented melanocytes. | C. | nonpigmented epithelial cells. | D. | nonpigmented melanocytes. | E. | nonpigmented dermal cells. | | 10. | Which of the following is not a method for helping prevent pressure ulcer formation? A. | Massaging the skin | B. | Eating foods rich in proteins | C. | Providing adequate fluid intake | D. | Maintaining one body position | E. | Stimulating blood flow | | 11. | The main function of melanocytes is to A. | remove dead cells by phagocytosis. | B. | help control body temperature. | C. | produce melanin. | D. | produce vitamin D. | E. | act as sensory receptors. | | 12. | Epidermal cells are supplied with nutrients from blood vessels located in the A. | epidermis. | B. | dermis. | C. | subcutaneous layer. | D. | stratum corneum. | E. | stratum basale. | | 13. | Pressure ulcers are usually associated with skin overlying A. | bony projections. | B. | skeletal muscles. | C. | a thick layer of fat. | D. | nerve fibers. | E. | the hands. | | 14. | Cutaneous carcinomas are most commonly caused by exposure to A. | X rays. | B. | gamma radiation. | C. | ultraviolet light. | D. | mutagenic chemicals. | E. | carcinogenic chemicals. | | 15. | Which of the following is a characteristic of the person most likely to develop a cutaneous carcinoma? A. | Over forty years of age | B. | Often works outdoors | C. | Light-complexioned skin | D. | Often plays outdoors | E. | All of these | | 16. | The most common cause of cutaneous melanoma is A. | relatively short exposure to high intensity sunlight. | B. | prolonged exposure to low intensity sunlight. | C. | occasional exposure to X rays. | D. | exposure to background radiation. | E. | exposure to mutagenic chemicals. | | 17. | Injections that are administered into the tissues of the skin are called A. | subcutaneous. | B. | intradermal. | C. | intramuscular. | D. | hypodermic. | E. | intravenous. | | 18. | Skin cells play an important role in the production of vitamin A. | A. | B. | B. | C. | D. | D. | E. | E. | C. | | 19. | Exposure to ultraviolet light darkens the skin by stimulating production of A. | melatonin. | B. | carotene. | C. | hemoglobin. | D. | cyanin. | E. | melanin. | | 20. | In healthy skin, the production of epidermal cells is closely balanced with the loss of skin cells. True False | 21. | Blood with excess oxygen causes cyanosis. True False | 22. | The outermost layer of the epidermis is stratum basale and the innermost layer is stratum corneum. True False | 23. | The dermis is very flat compared to the epidermis, which has ridges projecting inward and elevations called papillae. True False | 24. | Carcinomas appear most often in the skin of the neck, face and scalp. True False | 25. | Three physiological factors that affect the color of skin are: volume of blood in dermal vessels, carotene in the subcutaneous layer and various diseases. True False | 26. | The deepest cells of the epidermis make up the stratum ________________________. | 27. | __________________________ is the pigment produced by melanocytes. | 28. | The ________________________ of the subcutaneous layer acts as a heat insulator. | 29. | The shaft of a hair is composed of A. | dead epidermal cells. | B. | living epidermal cells. | C. | dead dermal cells. | D. | living dermal cells. | E. | living fibroblasts. | | 30. | A nail consists of a A. | nail fork and nail spoon. | B. | nail bed and nail plate. | C. | nail rail and nail groove. | D. | nail follicle and nail papilla. | E. | none of the above. | | 31. | Eccrine sweat glands A. | are most common in the armpits and groin. | B. | respond primarily to elevated body temperature. | C. | respond primarily to emotional stress. | D. | usually are associated with hair follicles. | E. | are examples of holocrine glands. | | 32. | Acne is a disorder involving the A. | sweat glands. | B. | hair follicles. | C. | sebaceous glands. | D. | apocrine glands. | E. | eccrine glands. | | 33. | The secretion of the sebaceous glands is called sebum. True False | 34. | Hair color is determined by the amount of keratin protein produced during keratinization. True False | 35. | The _____________________ glands of the skin respond to emotional stress and begin to function at puberty. | 36. | The arrector pili muscle is composed of _______________________ muscle tissue. | 37. | Dark hair contains an abundance of ___________________________. | 38. | The regulation of body temperature is of vital importance because A. | it should remain close to 37 degrees C. | B. | slight shifts in temperature can disrupt the rates of metabolic reactions. | C. | it is the product of chemical reactions. | D. | the skin plays an important role in pigment production. | E. | a person needs to feel comfortable in any environmental temperature. | | 39. | Which of the following is a normal response to excess loss of body heat in a cold environment? A. | Dermal blood vessels constrict. | B. | Sweat glands become inactive. | C. | Skeletal muscles contract involuntarily. | D. | Less blood flows to dermal vessels. | E. | All of these | | 40. | When the body temperature rises above normal, dermal blood vessels are likely to constrict. True False | 41. | The granulations that appear during the healing of a large, open wound are composed mainly of A. | blood clots. | B. | phagocytic cells. | C. | fibroblasts surrounding blood vessels. | D. | scar tissue. | E. | dead keratinocytes. | | 42. | A burn that involves the epidermis only is called a deep partial-thickness burn. True False |
Chapter 7: 1. | Which of the following increase the risk of developing osteoporosis? A. | Low intake of dietary calcium | B. | Lack of physical exercise | C. | Smoking | D. | Low intake of vitamin D | E. | All of these | | 2. | An osteocyte is a _______ A. | bone forming cell. | B. | cell that breaks down bone. | C. | bone cell surrounded by matrix. | D. | bone marrow cell. | E. | nerve cell in the bone. | | 3. | The microscopic bony chambers that house mature bone cells are called _______ A. | lacunae. | B. | central canals. | C. | osteons. | D. | perforating canals. | E. | canaliculi. | | 4. | The salts that are abundant in the extracellular matrix of bone tissue consist largely of _______ A. | calcium phosphate. | B. | sodium chloride. | C. | calcium carbonate. | D. | calcium sulfate. | E. | sodium bicarbonate. | | 5. | Osteoclasts are large cells that cause the breakdown of osseous tissue. True False | 6. | _______________________ are the cells that form bone tissue by depositing bony matrix around themselves. | 7. | The ______________________ is the thin layer of cells that lines the medullary cavity within a long bone. | 8. | A long bone grows in thickness as bone tissue is deposited beneath its ____________________. | 9. | Which of the following is NOT a step in the formation of endochondral bone? A. | Hyaline cartilage develops into the shape of the future bone. | B. | Periosteum forms from connective tissue on the outside of the developing bone. | C. | Hyaline cartilage changes to adipose tissue. | D. | Osteoblasts deposit osseous tissue in place of disintegrating cartilage. | E. | Osteoblasts deposit compact bone beneath the periosteum. | | 10. | Bone that develops within sheetlike layers of connective tissue is called _______ A. | endochondral bone. | B. | intramembranous bone. | C. | cartilaginous bone. | D. | osteoclastic bone. | E. | appendicular bone. | | 11. | Red bone marrow functions in the formation of _______ A. | osteocytes. | B. | red blood cells only. | C. | white blood cells only. | D. | red and white blood cells only. | E. | red and white blood cells and platelets. | | 12. | The cells responsible for removing excess bone tissue after the fracture repair process are _______ A. | fibroblasts. | B. | chondrocytes. | C. | osteoblasts. | D. | osteoclasts. | E. | osteocytes. | | 13. | Vitamin D is needed for the proper absorption of calcium in the small intestine. True False | 14. | The basic parts of a(an) ____________________ include a rod, fulcrum, weight, and force. | 15. | _____________________________________ is the process of blood cell formation. | 16. | Which of the following bones is NOT included within the lower limb? A. | Ulna | B. | Femur | C. | Tibia | D. | Fibula | E. | Patella | | 17. | Which of the following is NOT included in the appendicular skeleton? A. | Pectoral girdle | B. | Vertebral column | C. | Upper limbs | D. | Pelvic girdle | E. | Lower limbs | | 18. | Which of the following is included in the pectoral girdle? A. | Hip bone | B. | Sternum | C. | Sacrum | D. | Scapula | E. | Coccyx | | 19. | The appendicular skeleton consists of the parts that support and protect the head, neck, and trunk. True False | 20. | The zygomatic arch is composed of processes of the _______ A. | zygomatic and temporal bones. | B. | zygomatic and maxilla bones. | C. | maxilla and temporal bones. | D. | temporal and parietal bones. | E. | zygomatic and sphenoid bones. | | 21. | Which of the following is part of the facial skeleton? A. | Parietal bone | B. | Maxillary bone | C. | Sphenoid bone | D. | Temporal bone | E. | Ethmoid bone | | 22. | A cleft palate results from incomplete development of the _______ A. | palatine bones. | B. | maxillae. | C. | mandible. | D. | vomer bone. | E. | frontal bone. | | 23. | The parietal bones meet the frontal bone along the sagittal suture. True False | 24. | The importance of fontanels in the infant's skull is to permit some movement of bones, thereby enabling the infant to pass more easily though the birth canal. True False | 25. | Cervical vertebrae can be distinguished from other types by the presence of A. | transverse foramina. | B. | transverse processes. | C. | articulating processes. | D. | vertebral foramina. | E. | intervertebral discs. | | 26. | The cartilaginous parts that separate the vertebrae are called ________________________.

| 27. | Which of the following bones has an acromion process? A. | Sternum | B. | Scapula | C. | Clavicle | D. | Humerus | E. | Vertebra | | 28. | The humerus has an olecranon fossa. True False | 29. | The bones of the wrist together form the _________________________________________. | 30. | A hip bone includes a (an) __________________________________ A. | ilium. | B. | ischium. | C. | pubis. | D. | acetabulum. | E. | all of these. | | 31. | The tarsal bones form the wrist. True False | 32. | The joints between the vertebrae of the backbone are best described as _______ A. | immovable. | B. | slightly movable. | C. | freely movable. | D. | synovial. | E. | fibrous. | | 33. | The degenerative joint disease osteoarthritis may develop as a result of damage to the _______ A. | articular cartilage. | B. | diaphysis. | C. | epiphyseal plate. | D. | periosteum. | E. | medullary cavity. | | 34. | A meniscus functions to cushion articulating surfaces of bones. True False | 35. | Synovial fluid moistens and lubricates the cartilaginous surfaces within a joint. True False | 36. | The hip joint is a pivot joint. True False | 37. | The movement of a limb away from the midline is _____________________________________. | 38. | The joint created by the two pubic bones is the ________________________________. | 39. | A bone includes _______ A. | bone tissue. | B. | blood. | C. | dense connective tissue. | D. | cartilage. | E. | all of these. | | 40. | Which of the following is not a function of bone? A. | To protect soft tissues | B. | To house blood-producing cells | C. | To provide nervous communication from bone to muscle | D. | To store inorganic salts | E. | To provide points of attachment for muscles | | 41. | The zygomatic bone is an example of a (an) _______ A. | long bone. | B. | short bone. | C. | flat bone. | D. | irregular bone. | E. | sesamoid bone. | | 42. | Articular cartilage is _______ A. | hyaline cartilage. | B. | fibrocartilage. | C. | elastic cartilage. | D. | found only in the knees and elbows. | E. | located on the diaphysis of long bones. | | 43. | The presence of an epiphyseal plate indicates that _______ A. | the bone is broken. | B. | the bone is dead. | C. | the bone is increasing in diameter. | D. | the bone is lengthening. | E. | the bone is no longer lengthening. | | 44. | Sinuses are found within all of the following bones except the _______ A. | frontal bone. | B. | maxillae. | C. | zygomatic bones. | D. | ethmoid bones. | E. | sphenoid bones. | | 45. | Most people have 24 ribs. True False | 46. | The xiphoid process is part of the ________________________________ . | 47. | Which of the following describes the female pelvis compared to that of the male? A. | The distance between the female ischial tuberosities is less. | B. | The distance between the female ischial spines is greater. | C. | The female iliac bones are less flared. | D. | The female pelvic cavity is narrower. | E. | The female coccyx is less movable. | | 48. | The femur _______ A. | is the longest bone in the body. | B. | extends from the hip to the knee. | C. | has a large rounded head. | D. | articulates with the patella. | E. | is all of these. | | 49. | Which of the following terms and descriptions is correctly paired? A. | Extension-bending the leg at the knee or decreasing the angle between the femur and tibia | B. | Adduction-lifting the upper limb horizontally to form a right angle with the side of the body or moving a part away from the midline | C. | Pronation-turning the hand so the palm is downward or facing posteriorly (in anatomical position) | D. | Retraction-moving a part forward or thrusting the head forward | E. | Elevation-lowering a part or drooping the shoulders | |

Chapter 8: 1. | A sarcomere is best described as _______ A. | a part of the sarcoplasmic reticulum | B. | a group of fascicles | C. | a group of myofibrils | D. | a unit within a myofibril | E. | all of the above | | 2. | Myofibrils are composed primarily of A. | actin and myosin | B. | ATP and ADP | C. | troponin and tropomyosin | D. | fascia and tendons | E. | perimysium and endomysium | | 3. | A motor unit typically includes A. | muscle fibers only | B. | motor neurons only | C. | several motor neurons and one muscle fiber | D. | one motor neuron and several muscle fibers | E. | several motor neurons and several muscle fibers | | 4. | Endomysium separates individual muscle fibers from each other. True False | 5. | A motor neuron and the muscle fibers that it controls constitute a motor unit. True False | 6. | A broad sheet of dense connective tissue that connects muscle to muscle is called _________________________________. | 7. | The electrical impulse that triggers a contraction travels deep into a skeletal muscle fiber by means of A. | sarcoplasmic reticulum | B. | transverse tubules | C. | mitochondria | D. | motor end plates | E. | gap junctions | | 8. | Neurotransmitter molecules are stored in vesicles within A. | myofibrils | B. | motor units | C. | motor end plates | D. | motor neuron endings | E. | sarcomeres | | 9. | The enzyme acetylcholinesterase causes acetylcholine to A. | bind to actin | B. | be secreted from the motor end plate | C. | decompose | D. | form cross bridges | E. | none of the above | | 10. | Creatine phosphate A. | causes the decomposition of ATP | B. | causes the decomposition of ADP | C. | supplies energy for the synthesis of ATP | D. | supplies energy for the breakdown of ATP to ADP | E. | binds to Ach receptors | | 11. | Binding sites on the surface of actin allow the formation of cross bridges with molecules of A. | ATP | B. | myosin | C. | troponin | D. | tropomyosin | E. | creatine | | 12. | The amount of oxygen needed to support the conversion of lactic acid to glucose by the liver is called the A. | refractory quantity | B. | oxygen debt | C. | anaerobic value | D. | aerobic conversion | E. | lactate debt | | 13. | A muscle cramp is most likely due to a temporary lack of A. | actin | B. | myosin | C. | ATP | D. | ADP | E. | motor neurons | | 14. | In the initiation of muscle contraction, calcium ions bind to tropomyosin, exposing active sites on actin for cross-bridge formation. True False | 15. | The enzyme ATPase occurs in the globular portion of myosin molecules. True False | 16. | Ach released by a motor neuron crosses the synaptic cleft and reaches the motor end plate by diffusion. True False | 17. | An example of a partial but sustained contraction of a whole muscle is A. | eye blinking | B. | tetanic contraction of a muscle fiber | C. | a twitch | D. | muscle tone | E. | fatigue of a motor unit | | 18. | The characteristic reddish brown color of skeletal muscle comes from which substance? A. | actin | B. | myosin | C. | myoglobin | D. | calcium | E. | muscle glycogen | | 19. | The threshold stimulus is the A. | minimum strength of stimulus required to cause muscle fiber contraction to occur | B. | the maximal amount of force a muscle can exert | C. | the amount of oxygen a muscle needs for repeated contractions | D. | the minimal amount of force a muscle can exert | E. | the maximal amount of stimulation a muscle can withstand | | 20. | The botulinum toxin that causes botulism acts by blocking acetylcholine receptors on the motor end plate. Which of the following would result from such an action? A. | uncontrolled muscle contraction | B. | muscle weakness or paralysis | C. | increased muscle strength | D. | inability of the muscle to relax | E. | tetanic contraction | | 21. | Rigor mortis that occurs in skeletal muscles a few hours after death is due to A. | excessive ATP decreased membrane permeability to calcium ions | B. | lack of ATP increased membrane permeability to calcium ions | C. | persistent stimulation by motor neuron | D. | a decrease in the number of muscle fibers | E. | none of the above | | 22. | ATP is necessary for muscle relaxation. True False | 23. | During anaerobic respiration, pyruvic acid molecules are converted into molecules of _______________________________. | 24. | Anaerobic muscle fatigue is most likely due to an accumulation of ______________________. | 25. | The increase in the number of motor units activated as a result of more intense stimulation is called A. | latency | B. | recruitment | C. | threshold stimulation | D. | all-or-none response | E. | summation | | 26. | In a recording of a muscle twitch, the delay between the time a stimulus is applied and the time the muscle responds is called the A. | refractory period | B. | relaxation period | C. | latent period | D. | contraction period | E. | recovery period | | 27. | Activities such as distance swimming and distance running are most likely to stimulate development of A. | slow fatigable muscle fibers | B. | fast fatigable muscle fibers | C. | slow fatigue-resistant muscle fibers | D. | fast fatigue-resistant muscle fibers | E. | none of the above | | 28. | When a muscle undergoes atrophy in response to disuse, A. | there is a reduction in capillary networks | B. | the number of mitochondria decreases | C. | the size of actin and myosin filaments decreases | D. | the muscle gets smaller | E. | all of the above | | 29. | The minimal strength of stimulation needed to elicit a muscle contraction is called the threshold stimulus. True False | 30. | The time lag between when a muscle is stimulated and when it begins to contract is called the ____________________________________. | 31. | The rhythmic, wavelike motion produced by visceral smooth muscle is called ______________________. | 32. | The enlargement of muscle fibers as a result of exercise is called ______________________. | 33. | Multiunit smooth muscle A. | is composed of sheets of muscle cells | B. | tends to display rhythmicity | C. | occurs in the walls of the stomach and intestines | D. | responds to stimulation by neurons and certain hormones | E. | none of the above apply | | 34. | The term "muscle" can refer to A. | a cell | B. | a tissue | C. | an organ | D. | all of the above | E. | none of the above | | 35. | Compared to skeletal muscle, smooth muscle A. | contracts more slowly and relaxes more slowly | B. | contracts more slowly and relaxes more rapidly | C. | contracts more rapidly and relaxes more slowly | D. | contracts more rapidly and relaxes more rapidly | E. | is under voluntary control | | 36. | The two neurotransmitters that affect smooth muscle cells are acetylcholine and __________________. | 37. | Cardiac muscle is located in the walls of blood vessels. True False | 38. | Muscles that assist a prime mover are called ___________________________. | 39. | Functions of muscle include A. | the heartbeat | B. | muscle tone | C. | production of heat | D. | moving body parts | E. | all of the above | | 40. | The moveable end of a muscle is attached at its A. | origin | B. | fulcrum | C. | insertion | D. | motor end plate | E. | source | | 41. | The muscle primarily responsible for opposing a particular action is called the A. | antagonist | B. | prime mover | C. | synergist | D. | agonist | E. | origin | | |

Chapter 9: 1. | Parts called effectors that are capable of bringing about change in the internal environment include muscles and __________________________.

| 2. | Which of the following is NOT a type of neuroglia? A. | Astrocyte | B. | Oligodendrocyte | C. | Ependymal cell | D. | Neuron | E. | Microglial cell | | 3. | In the central nervous system myelin is formed by A. | Schwann cells. | B. | oligodendrocytes. | C. | astrocytes. | D. | microglial cells. | E. | ependymal cells. | | 4. | Astrocytes provide structural support in the nervous system. True False | 5. | The cells in the nervous system that fill spaces and give support to neurons are called __________________________________. | 6. | Sheaths of myelin produced by _____________________ cells often enclose the axons outside of the brain and spinal cord.

| 7. | The cellular processes of neurons that provide receptive surfaces for input from other neurons are A. | neurofibrils. | B. | Nissl fibers. | C. | axons. | D. | dendrites. | E. | nuclei. | | 8. | Masses of myelinated nerve fibers appear A. | white. | B. | gray. | C. | brown. | D. | transparent. | E. | red. | | 9. | Ischemic cell damage is caused by a lack of blood flow, which deprives cells of A. | sodium ions. | B. | potassium ions. | C. | oxygen. | D. | carbon dioxide. | E. | chloride ions. | | 10. | An infant's responses to stimuli are coarse and undifferentiated because its nerve fibers A. | have not yet appeared. | B. | are not yet capable of action potentials. | C. | have not yet developed connections to the brain. | D. | are not completely myelinated. | E. | cannot release neurotransmitter. | | 11. | Interneurons are specialized to carry impulses from peripheral receptors into the brain or spinal cord. True False | 12. | Nodes of Ranvier connect adjacent neurons. True False | 13. | A synapse is the functional connection between two neurons. True False | 14. | Which describes the ion concentrations inside and outside of a neuron? A. | Sodium and potassium ions are both at higher concentration on the inside of the cell. | B. | Sodium and potassium ions are both at higher concentration on the outside of the cell. | C. | The sodium ion concentration is higher on the inside of the cell and potassium ion concentration is higher on the outside of the cell. | D. | The sodium ion concentration is higher on the outside of the cell and potassium ion concentration is higher on the inside of the cell. | E. | The concentrations of sodium and potassium ions are both equal inside and outside of the cell. | | 15. | Which is true of drugs that decrease membrane permeability to sodium ions? A. | Some are used as local. | B. | They may block nerve impulses from moving along the axon. | C. | They may prevent the perception of pain. | D. | They work by blocking sodium channels in the cell membrane. | E. | All of these are true. | | 16. | During an action potential, depolarization occurs as a result of A. | potassium ions diffusing to the outside of the cell membrane. | B. | potassium ions diffusing to the inside of the cell membrane. | C. | sodium ions diffusing to the outside of the cell membrane. | D. | sodium ions diffusing to the inside of the cell membrane. | E. | sodium and potassium ions not diffusing. | | 17. | During an action potential, repolarization occurs as a result of A. | potassium ions diffusing to the outside of the cell membrane. | B. | potassium ions diffusing to the inside of the cell membrane. | C. | sodium ions diffusing to the outside of the cell membrane. | D. | sodium ions diffusing to the inside of the cell membrane. | E. | sodium and potassium ions not diffusing. | | 18. | The difference in electrical charge between the inside and outside of a resting nerve cell membrane is called the resting membrane _____________________. | 19. | A nerve impulse consists of a wave of ____________________ potentials moving along the axon of a neuron. | 20. | A deficiency of calcium in the body can result in involuntary muscle contractions. True False | 21. | When a neuron becomes more excitable as a result of incoming subthreshold stimulation, it is said to be A. | facilitated. | B. | amplified. | C. | converged. | D. | diverged. | E. | inhibited. | | 22. | A nerve is a single neuron. True False | 23. | Which of the following lists parts of a reflex arc in the correct sequence? A. | Receptor, motor neuron, sensory neuron, effector | B. | Effector, receptor, sensory neuron, motor neuron | C. | Effector, sensory neuron, receptor, motor neuron | D. | Receptor, sensory neuron, motor neuron, effector | E. | Receptor, effector, sensory neuron, motor neuron | | 24. | Within the meninges, cerebrospinal fluid occupies the A. | pia mater. | B. | dura mater. | C. | epidural space. | D. | subarachnoid space. | E. | none of the above. | | 25. | In the case of a subdural hematoma (blood accumulating beneath the dura) resulting from a blow to the head, blood accumulates between the A. | dura mater and the bone of the skull. | B. | dura mater and arachnoid mater. | C. | pia mater and brain. | D. | arachnoid mater and pia mater. | E. | in the subarachnoid space. | | 26. | The pressure of cerebrospinal fluid is usually measured by introducing a hollow needle between lumbar vertebrae into the A. | dura mater. | B. | pia mater. | C. | arachnoid mater. | D. | subarachnoid space. | E. | none of these. | | 27. | The subarachnoid space within the meninges contains cerebrospinal fluid. True False | 28. | The outermost layer of the meninges is the ___________________________ mater. | 29. | The spinothalamic tract conducts impulses A. | from the thalamus to the cerebral cortex. | B. | up the spinal cord to the thalamus. | C. | down the spinal cord from the thalamus. | D. | that stimulate contraction of skeletal muscle. | E. | between left and right cerebral hemispheres. | | 30. | The gray commissure of the spinal cord surrounds the central canal. True False | 31. | If fibers in an ascending tract of the spinal cord are cut, the affected person will have a loss of motor functions below the injury. True False | 32. | Cell bodies of motor neurons are located in the anterior horns of the spinal cord. True False | 33. | The __________________________ root of a spinal nerve consists of motor neuron axons. | 34. | The part of the brain that coordinates voluntary muscle movements is the A. | cerebrum. | B. | medulla oblongata. | C. | cerebellum. | D. | corpus callosum. | E. | midbrain. | | 35. | Which of the following is most closely associated with the diencephalon? A. | Thalamus | B. | Cerebral aqueduct | C. | Cerebral peduncles | D. | Frontal lobe | E. | Pons | | 36. | The complex network of tiny islands of gray matter in the brain that "awakens" the cerebral cortex is the A. | dentate nucleus. | B. | reticular formation. | C. | limbic system. | D. | corpora quadrigemina. | E. | cerebellum. | | 37. | The arbor vitae is part of the cerebrum. True False | 38. | Brain damage to the temporal lobe, where recent memory is processed, can result in the inability to form long-term memory. True False | 39. | The interconnected fluid-filled cavities in the brain are called ________________________. | 40. | The cardiac and vasomotor center are located in the A. | pons. | B. | medulla oblongata. | C. | cerebellum. | D. | frontal lobe. | E. | thalamus. | | 41. | The phrenic nerves arise from the A. | cervical plexuses. | B. | brachial plexuses. | C. | lumbar plexuses. | D. | sacral plexuses. | E. | brainstem. | | 42. | The respiratory areas are in the pons and in the A. | thalamus. | B. | cerebrum. | C. | midbrain. | D. | medulla oblongata. | E. | cerebellum. | | 43. | Amphetamines have stimulating effects on the nervous system because they A. | block the action of norepinephrine. | B. | release norepinephrine. | C. | block the normal uptake of norepinephrine. | D. | increase the reuptake of norepinephrine from the synapse. | E. | break down norepinephrine. | | 44. | Which of the following are adrenergic fibers? A. | Parasympathetic postganglionic fibers | B. | Sympathetic postganglionic fibers | C. | Parasympathetic preganglionic fibers | D. | Sympathetic preganglionic fibers | E. | Motor fibers to skeletal muscle | | 45. | Sympathetic tone is defined as ongoing stimulation of smooth muscles in the walls of blood vessels, which results in partial constriction. True False |