Anatomy- Blood and Heart

Exam #1 Spring 2002 Anatomy and Physiology 2150 Dr. Jones

Choose the correct answer for each question and mark it on your bubble sheet. Be careful to follow the instructions on the bubble sheet for correctly recording your answers.

1. Which of the following statements is true?

A. Blood is an organ
B. Blood is a connective tissue X
C. Blood is composed of living cells only
D. None of the above

2. Which of the following would be considered a normal hematocrit?

A. 45% X
B. 35%
C. 85%
D. 10%

3. Which of the following cells does not contain a nucleus?

A. Monocytes
B. Lymphocytes
C. Erthyrocytes X
D. All of the above

4. Which of the following is a function of blood?

A. Distribution of gases, wastes and hormones
B. Regulation of pH, body temperature and volume
C. Protection against infection
D. All of the above X

5. Which of the following is the most abundant constituent of plasma?

A. Nutrients
B. Red and white blood cells
C. Oxygen
D. Water X

6. Which of the following are functions of erythrocytes?

A. Transport of gases X
B. Buffering blood pH
C. Immunity
D. All of the above

7. What is the structure of hemoglobin?

A. It is composed of 4 identical polypeptide chains
B. It is composed of 4 unique polypeptide chains
C. It is composed of 2 identical polypeptide chains
D. None of the above X

8. Which of the following statements is true?

A. Hemoglobin can bind up to 6 molecules of O2
B. O2 binds to the polypeptide globin
C. CO2 binds to the heme group of hemeglobin
D. CO2 binds to the polypeptide globin X

9. What is hematopoiesis?

A. The destruction of red blood cells
B. The production of white blood cells
C. The production of red blood cells X
D. The destruction of white blood cells

10. Which of the following statements about reticulocytes is true?

A. They mature into erythrocytes
B. They are present in the blood stream
C. They do not contain any organelles
D. All of the above X

11. What is the key signal that stimulates special kidney cells to produce erythropoietin?

A. A low erythrocyte count
B. Low oxygen levels X
C. Decreased white blood cell count
D. All of the above

12. What is the function of erythropoietin?

A. To stimulate the kidney cells to increase blood cell production
B. To stimulate the liver cells to increase blood cell destruction
C. To stimulate the red bone marrow to increase blood cell production X
D. To stimulate the red bone marrow to decrease blood cell production

13. Which of the following disorders would most likely require treatment with Erythropoietin?

A. Kidney disease X
B. Liver disease
C. Stroke
D. Polycythemia

14. Which of the following would cause Jaundice (yellow coloring in the whites of the eyes)?

A. Excess urobilinogen in the intestines
B. Excess albumin in the blood
C. Excess bilirubin in the blood X
D. Excess hemoglobin in the blood

15. Which of the following anemias results in the production of small, pale red blood cells or microcytes?

A. Hemorrhagic
B. Hemolytic
C. Iron-deficiency anemia X
D. Pernicious

16. What is the cause of Sickle-Cell anemia?

A. Low iron in the diet
B. Malaria
C. A change in one amino acid of the beta chains X
D. All of the above

17. Blood doping is……..?

A. A sluggish circulation of the blood
B. A method of increasing hematocrit X
C. Caused by cancer of the bone marrow
D. All of the above

18. What is Diapedesis?

A. Platelet aggregation
B. A hemorrhaging blood vessel
C. Migration of white blood cells out of the blood vessels X
D. All of the above

19. Which of the following applies to White Blood Cells?

A. Have nuclei and organelles
B. Protect body from infection
C. Undergo leukocytosis
D. All of the above X

20. Which of the following cells is the most numerous Granulocyte in the blood?

A. Neutrophils X
B. Basophils
C. Lymphocytes
D. Monocytes

21. Which of the following cell types can digest parasites but not bacteria?

A. Eosinophils X
B. Basophils
C. Neutrophils
D. Monocytes

22. Which of the following plays a key role in plug formation after trauma to a blood vessel?

A. Erythrocytes
B. Leukocytes
C. Thrombocytes X
D. Lymphocytes

23. What is the function of prostacyclin (PGI2)?

A. To reinforce the plug
B. To recruit platelets to the area of damage
C. To degranulate the platelet
D. To repel platelets and prevent plug formation X

24. What is the role of Thrombin during the formation of a blood clot?

A. It is an activator that stimulates production of Prothrombin
B. It stimulates production of Fibrinogen
C. It stimulates the production of Fibrin X
D. All of the above

25. What is the function of Plasmin?

A. It helps to dissolve away clots X
B. It helps to produce a clot
C. It helps in the production of platelets
D. It helps in the production of erythrocytes

26. What is an embolus?

A. A blood clot that adheres to the blood vessel where it was formed
B. A blood clot that breaks away form the location where it was formed X
C. A blood clot that does not pose any threat to the patient
D. All of the above

27. Hemophilia is caused by a deficiency of which of the following?

A. Platelets
B. Fibrinogen
C. Clotting Factors X
D. Thrombin

28. What blood types can be donated to a person who is B-?

A. B- O- X
B. B+ A- O+ O-
C. B- B+ AB-
D. B- O- A-

29. What antibodies are present in the blood of a person who is type O?

A. None
B. Anti A
C. Anti B
D. Anti A and anti B X

30. Which of the following statements is true?

A. At 2 months of age a Rhesus negative person spontaneously develops anti rhesus antibodies
B. At 2 months of age a Rhesus positive person spontaneously develops anti rhesus antibodies
C. At 2 months of age a Type AB person spontaneously develops anti A & B antibodies
D. At 2 months of age a Type B person spontaneously develops anti A antibodies X

31. Which of the following anchors the heart within the mediastinum and prevents the heart from overfilling?

A. The Serous pericardium
B. The Fibrous pericardium X
C. The Myocardium
D. The Endocardium
32. What is the interventricular sulcus?

A. Junction of the atria and the ventricles
B. Junction of the right and left ventricles X
C. Junction of the aorta and atria
D. Junction of the aorta and ventricles

33. Blood from the legs enters the right atrium via which major blood vessel?

A. Coronary Sinus
B. Superior Vena Cava
C. Inferior Vena Cava X
D. All the above

34. The right side of the heart pumps blood into which circulation system?

A. Pulmonary X
B. Systemic
C. Both pulmonary and systemic
E. None of the above

35. Which of the following statements is true?

A. Arteries transport blood to the heart
B. Arteries transport blood away from the heart X
C. The lungs are supplied with blood from veins
D. Veins transport blood away from the heart

36. What is the function of the semilunar heart valves?

A. Prevent back flow into the atria
B. Prevent backflow into the aorta
C. Prevent backflow into the lungs
D. Prevent backflow into the ventricles X

37. The junction between adjacent cardiac cells is called the …….

A. The gap junction
B. The reticular junction
C. The intercalated disc X
D. The desmosome

38. The stimulus for cardiac muscle to contract comes from……

A. The vagus nerve
B. The autonomic nervous system
C. The voluntary nervous system
D. Autorhythmic cells X

39. Which ions cross the membrane during the depolarization phase in cardiac muscle cells?

A. Na+ X
B. Ca+
C. K+
D. Mg+

40. Which ions cross the membrane during the depolarization of cells located in the cardiac conduction system?

A. Na+
B. Ca+ X
C. K+
D. Mg+

41. How does a depolarizing current in the atria get transmitted to the ventricles?

A. It passes through the cardiac muscle cells
B. It travels through the epicardium
C. The only access is via the AV node X
D. It travels through the endocardium

42. Which of the following areas of the heart is the pacemaker in a normal healthy heart?

A. The Atrioventricular node
B. The Sinoatrial node X
C. The Bundle of His
D. The Purkinje Fibers

43. Which of the following can cause an Ectopic Focus in the heart?

A. An embolus
B. A thrombus
C. Too much caffeine X
D. All of the above

44. What event occurs during the P wave on an electrocardiogram?

A. Depolarization of the atria X
B. Depolarization of the ventricles
C. Repolarization of the atria
D. Repolarization of the ventricles

45. What event occurs during the T wave on an electrocardiogram?

A. Depolarization of the atria
B. Depolarization of the ventricles
C. Repolarization of the atria
D. Repolarization of the ventricles X

46. What electrical event(s) is/are recorded on an ECG?

A. A single Action Potential traveling through the Myocardium only
B. Atrial and Ventricular depolarization only
C. All electrical activity of the heart X
D. Ventricular repolarization and depolarization only

47. What event occurs during the S-T segment of an ECG?

A. Atrial contraction
B. Depolarization of the entire ventricular myocardium X
C. Beginning of ventricular depolarization
D. All of the above

48. What is the stroke volume?

A. Amount of blood pumped by each ventricle per minute
B. Amount of blood pumped by each ventricle per hour
C. Amount of blood pumped by each ventricle per beat X
D. Amount of blood pumped by both ventricles per minute

49. What is the End Diastolic Volume (EDV)?

A. Amount of blood in the atria just before systole
B. Amount of blood in the atria just before diastole
C. Amount of blood in the ventricles just before systole X
D. Amount of blood in the ventricles just before diastole

50. Which of the following is a result of Hypocalcemia?

A. A decrease in the duration of the action potential in cardiac muscle
B. A decrease in the duration of contraction of cardiac muscle
C. A decrease in the efficiency of the heart
D. All of the above X