Human Resource Management
Test Four Review & Study Guide Human Resource Management
Ethics, Justice, and Fair Treatment in HR Management
1) The principles of conduct governing an individual or a group are referred to as ________.
Explanation: Ethics refers to "the principles of conduct governing an individual or a group; specifically, the standards you use to decide what your conduct should be." Page Ref: 506
2) Ethics refers to the ________.
Explanation: Ethics refers to "the principles of conduct governing an individual or a group; specifically, the standards you use to decide what your conduct should be. A normative judgment means that something is right or wrong. Morals are society's highest accepted standards of behavior. Page Ref: 506
3) According …show more content…
to surveys, which of the following is the most commonly observed unethical behavior in the workplace?
Explanation: Abusive or intimidating behavior towards employees is the most commonly observed unethical behavior in the workplace according to surveys. Choices A, C, D, and E occur as well but with less frequency. Page Ref: 506
4) Which of the following terms refers to the characteristic values, traditions, and behaviors a company's employees share?
Explanation: Organizational culture is the characteristic values, traditions, and behaviors a company's employees share. A value is a basic belief about right and wrong. Page Ref: 509
5) Which of the following terms refers to a firm without any procedures for diminishing bad behavior?
Explanation: An ethically toxic company is one in which all the usual procedures that normally diminish bad behavior are simply missing. For example, managers pressure or even reward employees for bad behavior or no one publicizes ethical standards. Page Ref: 511
6) Which of the following requires companies to declare whether they have a code of conduct?
Explanation: The Sarbanes-Oxley Act (passed after a series of top corporate management ethical lapses) requires companies to declare whether they have a code of conduct. The other legislative acts are not related to corporate ethics. Page Ref: 512
7) Which of the following memorializes the standards by which the employer expects its employees to adhere?
Explanation: An ethics code memorializes the standards to which the employer expects its employees to adhere, for instance with respect to bribery. All publicly traded companies in the United States should have one. Page Ref: 512
8) Which of the following suggests that when a woman fails to act as anticipated, men and women will treat her more harshly than if a man had acted in the same manner?
Explanation: The Evil Woman Thesis argues that women who commit [certain] offenses violate stereotypic assumptions about the proper behavior of women. These women will [then] be penalized for their inappropriate sex role behavior in addition to their other offenses." In other words, it argues that when a woman doesn't act the way other men and women think she should act, the men and women tend to overreact and treat her more harshly than they might if a man committed it. Page Ref: 517
9) In which organizational document are an organization's rules and regulations usually stated?
Explanation: Upon hiring, tell employees, preferably in writing, what is not permitted. The employee handbook usually contains the rules and regulations. Page Ref: 518
10) Which of the following terms refers to discipline without punishment?
Explanation: Non-punitive discipline is discipline without punishment. It usually involves a system of oral warnings and paid "decision-making leaves" in lieu of more traditional punishment. Page Ref: 520
11) Which of the following is NOT one of the four points of the hot stove rule?
Explanation: Supervisors traditionally apply the four points of what they call the "hot stove rule" when applying discipline. When touching a hot stove that says, "Don't touch," the person has a warning, and the pain is consistent, impersonal, and immediate. Page Ref: 520
12) Which of the following terms refers to the involuntary termination of an employee's employment with a firm?
Explanation: Dismissal is the involuntary termination of an employee's employment with a firm. Insubordination is the willful disregard of authority. Page Ref: 524
13) Which of the following best defines "termination at will"?
Explanation: Termination at will means that without a contract, either the employer or the employee could terminate at will the employment relationship. The employee can resign for any reason, at will, and the employer can dismiss an employee for any reason, at will. Page Ref: 524
14) All of the following are reasonable grounds for dismissal EXCEPT ________.
Explanation: There are four bases for dismissal: unsatisfactory performance, misconduct, lack of qualifications for the job, and changed requirements of (or elimination of) the job. Whistleblowing is not grounds for dismissal. Page Ref: 525
15) Tracy is frequently absent from work and almost always late, so her manager has decided to fire her. Which of the following grounds for dismissal will her manager most likely use?
Explanation: Unsatisfactory performance means persistent failure to perform assigned duties or to meet prescribed job standards. Specific grounds include excessive absenteeism, tardiness, a persistent failure to meet normal job requirements, or an adverse attitude toward the company, supervisor, or fellow employees. Page Ref: 525
16) Which of the grounds for dismissal is defined as the deliberate and willful violation of the employer's rules and may include stealing and insubordination?
Explanation: Misconduct is deliberate and willful violation of the employer's rules and may include stealing, rowdy behavior, and insubordination. Sometimes the misconduct is more serious, as when it causes someone else harm. Page Ref: 525
17) When an employee's dismissal does not comply with the law or with the contractual agreement stated or implied by the firm via its employment application forms, employee manuals, or other promises, ________ has most likely occurred.
Explanation: Wrongful discharge refers to a dismissal that violates the law or that fails to comply with contractual arrangements stated or implied by the employer, for instance, in employee manuals. Page Ref: 525
18) A situation is most likely considered gross misconduct if it involves an employee ________.
Explanation: Gross misconduct has occurred if an employee violates safety or civil statues. Distracting co-workers, having a bad attitude, failing to complete tasks, and arriving late for work are not considered gross misconduct. Page Ref: 525-526
19) Which of the following terms refers to the willful disregard or disobedience of a supervisor's authority?
Explanation: Insubordination is a form of misconduct, and basically refers to willful disobedience and/or rebelliousness. Page Ref: 525-526
20) All of the following are examples of insubordination EXCEPT ________.
Explanation: Failing to perform tasks is a type of unsatisfactory performance. Acts of insubordination involve willfully disobeying authority.
Page Ref: 525-526
21) During which of the following is an employee informed of the fact that he or she has been dismissed?
Explanation: Telling an employee about his or her dismissal occurs in the termination interview. Exit interviews are conducted with employees who are leaving a firm for any reason for the purpose of gathering the employee's insight about the firm. Page Ref: 528
22) Which of the following is conducted with employees who are leaving a firm for the purpose of eliciting information about what is right or wrong with the job and the firm?
Explanation: Many employers conduct exit interviews with employees who are leaving the firm for any reason. These are interviews, usually conducted by a human resource professional just prior to the employee leaving; they elicit information about the job or employer with the aim of giving employers insights into what is right—or wrong—about the firm. Page Ref: 529 23) Which of the following terms refers to permanently dismissing a relatively large proportion of employees in an attempt to improve productivity and competitiveness?
Explanation: Downsizing refers to permanently dismissing a relatively large proportion of employees in an attempt to improve productivity and competitiveness. Page Ref: 531
24) Which of the following requires that employers of 100 or more employees provide 60 days' notice before starting a layoff of 50 or more people?
Explanation: The Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act (popularly known as the plant closing law) requires employers of 100 or more employees to give 60 days' notice before closing a facility or starting a layoff of 50 people or more. The law gives employees time to seek other work or retraining by giving them advance notice. Page Ref: 531
25) The plant closing law requires that employers ________.
Explanation: The Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act (popularly known as the plant closing law) requires employers of 100 or more employees to give 60 days' notice before closing a facility or starting a layoff of 50 people or more. The law gives employees time to seek other work or retraining by giving them advance notice. Page Ref: 531
26) The New York Stock Exchange recently eliminated all "reporter" jobs at the exchange. Reporters with seniority were able to remain employed by displacing co-workers in lower-level positions. Which of the following most likely occurred?
Explanation: Bumping occurs when an employee with seniority displaces a lower-level employee, or bumps them out of their position. Page Ref: 532
27) All of the following are layoff and downsizing alternatives EXCEPT having employees ________.
Explanation: Alternatives to layoffs and downsizing include finding volunteers who are interested in reducing hours or part-time work, reducing pay, having employees concentrate their vacations during slow periods, and having employees agree to take voluntary time off. Working overtime even at lower rates would not reduce costs for a firm. Page Ref: 533
Labor Relations and Collective Bargaining
28) About ________% of people working in the United States belong to unions.
Explanation: Just over 17.7 million U.S. workers belong to unions—around 12.4% of the total number of men and women working in this country. Page Ref: 544
29) One of the earliest unions in the United States, the Knights of Labor, was formed by a group of ________.
Explanation: In 1869, a group of tailors met and formed the Knights of Labor. The Knights were interested in political reform. Page Ref: 544
30) Who was responsible for forming the American Federation of Labor in 1886?
Explanation: In 1886, Samuel Gompers formed the American Federation of Labor (AFL). It consisted mostly of skilled workers and, unlike the Knights, focused on practical, bread-and-butter gains for its members. Page Ref: 544
31) Which of the following was the primary goal of the American Federation of Labor?
Explanation: Gompers and the AFL aimed to raise day-to-day wages and improve working conditions. Page Ref: 544-545
32 Which of the following best explains why union membership has fallen since the 1970s?
Explanation: Union membership has fallen since the 1970s. Reasons include the shift from manufacturing to service jobs, and new legislation (such as occupational safety laws) provides the sorts of protections that workers could once only obtain from their unions. Page Ref: 545
33) Which of the following is a false statement about union membership?
Explanation: Recent median weekly wages for union workers was $781, while that for nonunion workers was $612. Union workers also generally receive significantly more holidays, sick leave, unpaid leave, insurance plan benefits, long-term disability benefits, and various other benefits than nonunion workers do. Union membership is not exclusive to blue-collar workers. Page Ref: 545
34) Which of the following best describes the closed shop form of union security?
Explanation: Under the closed shop form of union security, the company can hire only current union members. Congress outlawed closed shops in interstate commerce in 1947, but they still exist in some states for particular industries (such as printing). They account for fewer than 5% of union contracts. Page Ref: 546
35) The ________ form of union security means that the company can hire only union members.
Explanation: Under the closed shop form of union security, the company can hire only current union members. Congress outlawed closed shops in interstate commerce in 1947, but they still exist in some states for particular industries. Page Ref: 546
36) The term ________ describes statutory or constitutional provisions banning the requirement of union membership as a condition of employment.
Explanation: Right to work is a term used to describe state statutory or constitutional provisions banning the requirement of union membership as a condition of employment. Right to work laws don't outlaw unions, but they do outlaw any form of union security. Page Ref: 546
37) Which of the following best describes the AFL-CIO?
Explanation: The American Federation of Labor and Congress of Industrial Organizations (AFL-CIO) is a voluntary federation of about 56 national and international labor unions in the United States. Page Ref: 546-547
38) Which of the following best describes a "yellow dog" contract?
Explanation: "Yellow dog" contracts, whereby management could require nonunion membership as a condition for employment, were widely enforced. Page Ref: 547
39) Prior to 1930, employers attempted to limit the influence of unions using all of the following methods EXCEPT ________.
Explanation: Until about 1930, there were no special labor laws. Employers were not required to engage in collective bargaining with employees and were virtually unrestrained in their behavior toward unions; the use of spies and firing of union agitators were widespread. "Yellow dog" contracts were widely enforced. Page Ref: 547
40) Which of the following guaranteed each employee the right to bargain collectively without interference, restraint, or coercion?
Explanation: The Norris-LaGuardia Act of 1932 guaranteed to each employee the right to bargain collectively "free from interference, restraint, or coercion." The National Labor Relations Act added on to Norris-LaGuardia by banning certain unfair labor practices. Page Ref: 548
41) Which of the following bans certain unfair labor practices and provides for majority rule and secret ballot elections?
Explanation: Congress passed the National Labor Relations (or Wagner) Act to add teeth to Norris-LaGuardia. It did this by banning certain unfair labor practices and by providing for secret-ballot elections and majority rule for determining whether a firm's employees would unionize. Page Ref: 548
42) Which of the following was established by the Wagner Act?
Explanation: The Wagner Act created the National Labor Relations Board to enforce the provisions of the act. Page Ref: 548
43) The National Labor Relations Board was primarily established for the purpose of ________.
Explanation: The National Labor Relations Board (NLR Page Ref: 548
44) The Taft-Hartley Act amended the Wagner Act in all of the following ways EXCEPT by ________.
Explanation: The Taft-Hartley Act did not alter the power of the NLRB. The law prohibited unfair labor practices, enumerated the rights of employers and employees, and allowed the President to bar national emergency strikes on a temporary basis. Page Ref: 548-550
45) Which of the following terms refers to an unfair labor practice in which a union requires an employer to pay an employee for services not performed?
Explanation: It is an unfair labor practice for a union to engage in featherbedding. Featherbedding involves requiring an employer to pay an employee for services not performed.
Page Ref: 550
46) Which law sought to protect union members from possible wrongdoing on the part of their unions?
Explanation: The Landrum-Griffin Act of 1959 was intended to protect union members from possible wrongdoing on the part of their unions. Page Ref: 551
47) Which of the following is a union organizing tactic by which union members are placed on nonunion job sites?
Explanation: The National Labor Relations Board defines union salting as "placing of union members on nonunion job sites for the purpose of organizing." Featherbedding involves requiring an employer to pay an employee for services not performed. Page Ref: 552
48) What percentage of eligible employees in a bargaining unit must sign authorization cards in order for the union to petition the NLRB for an election?
Explanation: Thirty percent of the eligible employees in an appropriate bargaining unit must sign before the union can petition the NLRB for an election. Page Ref: 552
49) Which of the following terms refers to the group of employees the union will be authorized to represent?
Explanation: The bargaining unit is the group of employees that the union will be authorized to represent and bargain for collectively. If the entire organization is the bargaining unit, the union will represent all nonsupervisory, non-managerial, and non-confidential employees, even though the union may be oriented mostly toward blue collar workers. Page Ref: 554
50) The union becomes the employees' representative if it receives ________.
Explanation: The union becomes the employees' representative if it wins the election, and winning means getting a majority of the votes cast, not a majority of the total workers in the bargaining unit. Page Ref: 555
51) All of the following increase the likelihood that an employer will lose an NLRB election EXCEPT ________.
Explanation: Employers tend to lose elections when they focus too much on wages and benefits, appoint uniformed committees to manage campaigns, and delegate union issues. Employers are more likely to win if they address the attitudes and concerns of all workers by sending out surveys and responding to their needs. Page Ref: 556
52) ________ is the process of legally terminating a union's right to represent employees.
Explanation: The same law that grants employees the right to unionize also gives them a way to terminate legally their union's right to represent them. The process is called decertification.
Page Ref: 559
53) When representatives of Ford's management and autoworkers union meet to negotiate a labor agreement, which of the following is most likely occurring?
Explanation: Collective bargaining is the process through which representatives of management and the union meet to negotiate a labor agreement. Page Ref: 559
54) Which of the following is a characteristic of good faith bargaining?
Explanation: Good faith bargaining is characterized by both parties making every reasonable effort to arrive at an agreement. Proposals are matched with counterproposals in good faith bargaining. Choices A, C, D, and E indicate that bargaining is not in good faith. Page Ref: 560
55) Which of the following terms refers to items in collective bargaining over which bargaining is neither illegal nor mandatory?
Explanation: Voluntary (or permissible) bargaining items are neither mandatory nor illegal; they become a part of negotiations only through the joint agreement of both management and union. Neither party can compel the other to negotiate over voluntary items. Page Ref: 561
56) All of the following are examples of mandatory bargaining items EXCEPT ________.
Explanation: Mandatory bargaining items are items in collective bargaining that a party must bargain over if they are introduced by the other party, such as employee security, shift differentials, profit-sharing plans, and drug testing. Voluntary bargaining items, such as indemnity bonds, become a part of negotiations only through the joint agreement of both management and union. Page Ref: 561
57) Which of the following is an illegal bargaining item?
Explanation: Illegal bargaining items are items in collective bargaining that are forbidden by law, such as discriminatory treatment. Choices A, D, and E are permissible items, and Choice C is a mandatory item. Page Ref: 561
58) Negotiators use all of the following types of third-party interventions to overcome an impasse EXCEPT ________.
Explanation: Negotiators use three types of third-party interventions to overcome an impasse: mediation, fact finding, and arbitration. Arbitration may be either binding or nonbinding. Picketing is not a third-party intervention method. Page Ref: 562
59) Which third-party intervention uses a neutral third party to assist the principals in reaching agreement?
Explanation: With mediation, a neutral third party tries to assist the principals in reaching agreement. The mediator usually holds meetings with each party to determine where each stands regarding its position, and then uses this information to find common ground for further bargaining.
Page Ref: 562
60) Which intervention method listed below is the most definitive of all third-party interventions?
Explanation: Arbitration is the most definitive type of third-party intervention, because the arbitrator often has the power to determine and dictate the settlement terms. Unlike mediation and fact finding, arbitration can guarantee a solution to an impasse. With binding arbitration, both parties are committed to accepting the arbitrator's award, but with nonbinding arbitration, they are not. Page Ref: 563
61) Which of the following terms refers to a strike that takes place when one union strikes in support of another union?
Explanation: A sympathy strike occurs when one union strikes in support of the strike of another union. A wildcat strike is an unauthorized strike occurring during the term of a contract.
Page Ref: 563
62) A strike that results from a failure to agree on the terms of a contract, such as wages and benefits, is known as a(n) ________ strike.
Explanation: An economic strike results from a failure to agree on the terms of a contract. Unions call unfair labor practice strikes to protest illegal conduct by the employer. A wildcat strike is an unauthorized strike occurring during the term of a contract. Page Ref: 563
63) Employers dealing with an unfair labor practice strike can use all of the following responses EXCEPT ________.
Explanation: Employers cannot permanently replace strikers who are protesting unfair labor practices. However, Choices A, B, C, and D are options in such a situation. Page Ref: 564-565
64) Union tactics designed to impede or disrupt production by encouraging employees to slow the pace of work, refuse to work overtime, and participate in sick-outs are called ________.
Explanation: Inside games are union efforts to convince employees to impede or to disrupt production, such as by slowing the work pace, refusing to work overtime, and filing mass charges with government agencies. Inside games are basically strikes in which the company continues to pay the employees. Page Ref: 566
65) Which of the following terms refers to the formal process for addressing any factor involving wages, hours, or conditions of employment that is used as a complaint against the employer?
Explanation: The grievance procedure provides an orderly system whereby both employer and union determine whether some action violated the contract. The grievance process allows both parties to interpret and give meaning to various clauses, and transforms the contract into a "living organism." Page Ref: 566
66) All of the following most likely explain the decline in union membership EXCEPT ________.
Explanation: Laws like OSHA and Title VII reduced the need for union protection. Increased global competition and new technologies like the Internet and just-in-time production systems forced employers to reduce inefficiencies and cut costs. Changes in salaries and wages are less likely to be a cause. Page Ref: 569
Employee Safety and Health
67) According to the U.S. Department of Labor, each year there are approximately ________ cases of workplace accidents per 100 full-time workers in the United States.
Explanation: The U.S. Department of Labor says workplace accidents in the United States cause over 3.8 million occupational injuries and illnesses per year—roughly 4.4 cases per 100 full-time workers. Page Ref: 582
68) All of the following are effective methods of improving workplace safety EXCEPT ________.
Explanation: Safety goals should be achievable and specific. Analyzing accident rates, publishing the firm's safety policy, and showing an organizational commitment to safety are effective methods of improving safety. Page Ref: 582
69) Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration?
Explanation: OSHA is the agency created within the Department of Labor to set safety and health standards for almost all workers in the United States. OSHA doesn't cover self-employed persons or farms in which only immediate members of the employer's family work. OSHA covers federal agencies, but usually not state and local governments. Page Ref: 583
70) The Occupational Safety and Health Act was intended to ________.
Explanation: The Occupational Safety and Health Act was intended to "assure so far as possible every working man and woman in the nation safe and healthful working conditions and to preserve our human resources." The Occupational Safety and Health Act doesn't cover self-employed persons or farms in which only immediate members of the employer's family work. The act covers federal agencies, but usually not state and local governments. Page Ref: 583
71) Which government agency enforces the standards set out in the Occupational Safety and Health Act?
Explanation: The Department of Labor enforces the standards established by the Occupational Safety and Health Act. OSHA has inspectors working out of branch offices. Page Ref: 583
72) Under OSHA, employers with ________ or more employees must maintain records of and report occupational injuries and occupational illnesses.
Explanation: The Department of Labor enforces the standards established by the Occupational Safety and Health Act. OSHA has inspectors working out of branch offices. Page Ref: 584
73) What term is used to describe any abnormal condition or disorder caused by exposure to environmental factors associated with employment?
Explanation: An occupational illness is any abnormal condition or disorder caused by exposure to environmental factors associated with employment. This includes acute and chronic illnesses caused by inhalation, absorption, ingestion, or direct contact with toxic substances or harmful agents. Page Ref: 584
74) According to OSHA, employers must report occupational injuries that result in any of the following EXCEPT ________.
Explanation: Employers must report most occupational injuries, specifically those that result in medical treatment (other than first aid), loss of consciousness, restriction of work (one or more lost workdays), restriction of motion, or transfer to another job. Page Ref: 584
75) According to OSHA, which of the following would most likely be considered the highest priority?
Explanation: OSHA still makes extensive use of inspections. OSHA takes a "worst-first" approach in setting inspection priorities. Priorities include, from highest to lowest, imminent dangers, catastrophes and fatal accidents, employee complaints, high-hazard industries inspections, and follow-up inspections. Page Ref: 585
76) Which of the following would be considered OSHA's lowest priority for inspection?
Explanation: OSHA still makes extensive use of inspections. OSHA takes a "worst-first" approach in setting inspection priorities. Priorities include, from highest to lowest, imminent dangers, catastrophes and fatal accidents, employee complaints, high-hazard industries inspections, and follow-up inspections. Page Ref:
585
77) What is the primary cause of workplace accidents?
Explanation: Unsafe conditions are the main cause of workplace accidents. Chance occurrences and employees' unsafe acts are less significant causes of workplace accidents. Page Ref: 590
78) Improperly guarded equipment, defective equipment, hazardous procedures, and improper ventilation are all examples of ________.
Explanation: Unsafe conditions refer to any mechanical and physical conditions that cause accidents, such as defective equipment and improper ventilation. Page Ref: 590
79) Which of the following accounts for one-third of all industrial accidents?
Explanation: About one-third of industrial accidents occur around forklift trucks, wheelbarrows, and other handling and lifting areas. The most serious accidents usually occur by metal and woodworking machines and saws, or around transmission machinery like gears, pulleys, and flywheels. Falls on stairs, ladders, walkways, and scaffolds are the third most common cause of industrial accidents. Page Ref: 590-591
80) In most large facilities, who is responsible for reducing unsafe working conditions and reducing unsafe acts by employees?
Explanation: In large facilities, the chief safety officer (often called the "Environmental Health and Safety Officer") is responsible for reducing unsafe acts and unsafe conditions. In smaller firms, managers, including those from human resources, plant management, and first-line managers, share these responsibilities. Page Ref: 591
81) All of the following are considered vulnerable workers EXCEPT ________.
Explanation: In designing safe and healthy environments, employers need to pay special attention to vulnerable workers, those who are "unprepared to deal with hazards in the workplace," either due to lack of education, ill-fitting personal protective equipment, physical limitations, or cultural reasons. Among others, these may include young workers, immigrant workers, aging workers, and women workers. Page Ref: 596
82) During the early 2000s, which demographic group experienced an increase of almost 50% in workplace fatalities in the construction industry?
Explanation: With increasing numbers of Spanish-speaking workers in the United States, experts express concern about their safety. For example, the number of Hispanic fatalities in construction rose by almost 50% in the early 2000s, because so many more Hispanics are now working in construction jobs. Page Ref: 598
83) All of the following are major sources of occupational respiratory disease EXCEPT ________.
Explanation: There are four major sources of occupational respiratory diseases: asbestos, silica, lead, and carbon dioxide. Of these, asbestos is a major concern, in part because of publicity surrounding asbestos in buildings constructed before the mid-1970s. Page Ref: 605
84) According to OSHA standards, which of the following substances has the lowest permissible exposure limit?
Explanation: The permissible exposer limit of asbestos is the lowest at .1001. Vinyl chloride is .1017, lead is .1025, cadmium is .1027, and formaldehyde is .1048. Page Ref: 605
85) Alcoholism among employees will most likely lead to an increase in ________.
Explanation: The alcoholic's on-the-job accidents usually don't increase significantly, apparently, because he or she becomes much more cautious. However, the off-the-job accident rate is higher. Morale of other workers drops because they have to shoulder the alcoholic's burdens. Page Ref: 606
86) Which of the following is one of the earliest indicators of an employee's possible alcoholism?
Explanation: Missed deadlines are an early sign of possible alcoholism. Violent outbursts, mood swings, forgetfulness, and personal neglect may occur in more advanced stages of alcoholism.
Page Ref: 606-607
87) Which of the following is NOT one of the primary methods of dealing with a current employee who tests positive for illegal drugs?
Explanation: When a current employee tests positive for drugs, disciplining, discharge, in-house counseling, and referral to an outside agency are the four traditional prescriptions. Arrest is unlikely in most cases. Page Ref: 607
88) What employers are bound by the Drug-Free Workplace Act?
Explanation: The federal Drug-Free Workplace Act requires employers with federal government contracts or grants to ensure a drug-free workplace by taking a number of steps. Page Ref: 608
89) ________ is defined as the total depletion of physical and mental resources caused by excessive striving to reach an unrealistic work-related goal.
Explanation: Burnout is a phenomenon closely associated with job stress. Experts define burnout as the total depletion of physical and mental resources caused by excessive striving to reach an unrealistic work-related goal. Page Ref: 609
90) Which of the following is a true statement regarding workplace smoking?
Explanation: Employers can deny a job to smokers, even if they only smoke at home. Smoking is not a disability, so the ADA does not protect smokers. Employers have higher costs due to higher health and fire insurance, increased absenteeism, and reduced productivity. Page Ref: 611
91) The second biggest cause of fatal workplace injuries is ________.
Explanation: Homicide is the second biggest cause of fatal workplace injuries after workplace safety issues. Page Ref: 611
92) What is the primary motive for homicides that occur at work?
Explanation: While robbery was the main motive for homicide at work, a coworker or personal associate committed roughly one of seven workplace homicides. Page Ref: 611
93) About half of all workplace homicides occur in ________.
Explanation: About half of workplace homicides occur in the retail industry, most likely due to robberies. As a result, OSHA has issued voluntary recommendations aimed at reducing homicides and injuries in such establishments. Page Ref: 612
94) Which of the following is NOT among the common clues that usually precede a violent incident at work?
Explanation: Clues that typically precede violent incidents include verbal threats, physical actions like intimidation, frustration, and obsession. A violent act is less likely to be preceded with a written threat. Page Ref: 613
95) Which of the following safety issues became a top priority of employers following the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001?
Explanation: After the terrorist attacks, many firms instituted formal disaster plans and held regular evacuation drills. Workplace violence, employee screening, drug abuse, and fire hazards remain important, but they did not change as a result of the events on September 11, 2001.
Page Ref: 615
Managing Global Human Resources
96) ________ are citizens of the countries where they are working.
Explanation: Locals are citizens of the countries where they are working. Expatriates are non-citizens of the countries in which they are working. Home-country nationals are citizens of the country in which the multinational company has its headquarters. Page Ref: 635
97) Of the types of international workers that multinational companies can employ, locals are best described as ________.
Explanation: Locals are citizens of the countries where they are working. Expatriates are non-citizens of the countries in which they are working. Home-country nationals are citizens of the country in which the multinational company has its headquarters. Page Ref: 635
98) ________ are noncitizens of the countries in which they are working.
Explanation: Expatriates are non-citizens of the countries in which they are working. Locals are citizens of the countries where they are working. Home-country nationals are citizens of the country in which the multinational company has its headquarters. Page Ref: 635
99) Which of the following terms refers to citizens of a country other than the parent or the host country?
Explanation: Third-country nationals are citizens of a country other than the parent or the host country. Home-country nationals are citizens of the country in which the multinational company has its headquarters. Page Ref: 635-636
100) Which of the following terms refers to citizens of the country in which the multinational company has its headquarters?
Explanation: Home-country nationals are citizens of the country in which the multinational company has its headquarters. Third-country nationals are citizens of a country other than the parent or the host country. Page Ref: 635-636
101) Which of the following terms refers to having local employees abroad do jobs that the firm's domestic employees previously did in-house?
Explanation: Offshoring means having local employees abroad do jobs that the firm's domestic employees previously did in-house. Offshoring is an increasingly popular staffing option.
Page Ref: 637
102) Which of the following terms refers to the belief that home country attitudes, management style, knowledge, evaluation criteria, and managers are superior to anything the host country has to offer?
Explanation: An ethnocentric corporation believes that home-country attitudes, management style, knowledge, evaluation criteria, and managers are superior to anything the host country might have to offer. A polycentric-oriented firm would staff its foreign subsidiaries with host-country nationals, and its home office with parent-country nationals. A geocentric staffing policy seeks the best people for key jobs regardless of nationality. Page Ref: 638
103) The most common reason that an expatriate fails at an international assignment is ________.
Explanation: Family support is the most significant factor in the success or failure of an expatriate. If the family of the executive cannot adapt or is negative about the international assignment, then the employee will most likely have difficulties. Choices A, B, C, and E are less significant issues. Page Ref: 638-639, 642
104) Which of the following best explains why female managers receive fewer foreign assignments than male managers?
Explanation: Surveys indicate that supervisors assume women will face cultural prejudice and safety problems, but neither is an issue. Supervisors also assume that women are not interested in leaving the U.S. and that their spouses will be reluctant to do so. Therefore, it is the misperceptions of supervisors that have led to a small percentage of female managers being sent abroad. Page Ref: 640
105) Before departing for an overseas assignment, an employee would most likely benefit from ________ training.
Explanation: Assignees benefit from training on the culture and language of the country in which they will be living. Such training helps them adapt and to work more effectively with locals. Page Ref: 643
106) ________ refers to bringing a manager back home after a foreign assignment has been completed.
Explanation: Expatriation refers to sending a worker to work overseas, while repatriation is the process of bringing the employee back to his or her home country. Repatriation programs help employees and their families make smooth adjustments. Page Ref: 649
Ethics, Justice, and Fair Treatment in HR Management
1) The principles of conduct governing an individual or a group are referred to as ________.
Explanation: Ethics refers to "the principles of conduct governing an individual or a group; specifically, the standards you use to decide what your conduct should be." Page Ref: 506
2) Ethics refers to the ________.
Explanation: Ethics refers to "the principles of conduct governing an individual or a group; specifically, the standards you use to decide what your conduct should be. A normative judgment means that something is right or wrong. Morals are society's highest accepted standards of behavior. Page Ref: 506
3) According …show more content…
to surveys, which of the following is the most commonly observed unethical behavior in the workplace?
Explanation: Abusive or intimidating behavior towards employees is the most commonly observed unethical behavior in the workplace according to surveys. Choices A, C, D, and E occur as well but with less frequency. Page Ref: 506
4) Which of the following terms refers to the characteristic values, traditions, and behaviors a company's employees share?
Explanation: Organizational culture is the characteristic values, traditions, and behaviors a company's employees share. A value is a basic belief about right and wrong. Page Ref: 509
5) Which of the following terms refers to a firm without any procedures for diminishing bad behavior?
Explanation: An ethically toxic company is one in which all the usual procedures that normally diminish bad behavior are simply missing. For example, managers pressure or even reward employees for bad behavior or no one publicizes ethical standards. Page Ref: 511
6) Which of the following requires companies to declare whether they have a code of conduct?
Explanation: The Sarbanes-Oxley Act (passed after a series of top corporate management ethical lapses) requires companies to declare whether they have a code of conduct. The other legislative acts are not related to corporate ethics. Page Ref: 512
7) Which of the following memorializes the standards by which the employer expects its employees to adhere?
Explanation: An ethics code memorializes the standards to which the employer expects its employees to adhere, for instance with respect to bribery. All publicly traded companies in the United States should have one. Page Ref: 512
8) Which of the following suggests that when a woman fails to act as anticipated, men and women will treat her more harshly than if a man had acted in the same manner?
Explanation: The Evil Woman Thesis argues that women who commit [certain] offenses violate stereotypic assumptions about the proper behavior of women. These women will [then] be penalized for their inappropriate sex role behavior in addition to their other offenses." In other words, it argues that when a woman doesn't act the way other men and women think she should act, the men and women tend to overreact and treat her more harshly than they might if a man committed it. Page Ref: 517
9) In which organizational document are an organization's rules and regulations usually stated?
Explanation: Upon hiring, tell employees, preferably in writing, what is not permitted. The employee handbook usually contains the rules and regulations. Page Ref: 518
10) Which of the following terms refers to discipline without punishment?
Explanation: Non-punitive discipline is discipline without punishment. It usually involves a system of oral warnings and paid "decision-making leaves" in lieu of more traditional punishment. Page Ref: 520
11) Which of the following is NOT one of the four points of the hot stove rule?
Explanation: Supervisors traditionally apply the four points of what they call the "hot stove rule" when applying discipline. When touching a hot stove that says, "Don't touch," the person has a warning, and the pain is consistent, impersonal, and immediate. Page Ref: 520
12) Which of the following terms refers to the involuntary termination of an employee's employment with a firm?
Explanation: Dismissal is the involuntary termination of an employee's employment with a firm. Insubordination is the willful disregard of authority. Page Ref: 524
13) Which of the following best defines "termination at will"?
Explanation: Termination at will means that without a contract, either the employer or the employee could terminate at will the employment relationship. The employee can resign for any reason, at will, and the employer can dismiss an employee for any reason, at will. Page Ref: 524
14) All of the following are reasonable grounds for dismissal EXCEPT ________.
Explanation: There are four bases for dismissal: unsatisfactory performance, misconduct, lack of qualifications for the job, and changed requirements of (or elimination of) the job. Whistleblowing is not grounds for dismissal. Page Ref: 525
15) Tracy is frequently absent from work and almost always late, so her manager has decided to fire her. Which of the following grounds for dismissal will her manager most likely use?
Explanation: Unsatisfactory performance means persistent failure to perform assigned duties or to meet prescribed job standards. Specific grounds include excessive absenteeism, tardiness, a persistent failure to meet normal job requirements, or an adverse attitude toward the company, supervisor, or fellow employees. Page Ref: 525
16) Which of the grounds for dismissal is defined as the deliberate and willful violation of the employer's rules and may include stealing and insubordination?
Explanation: Misconduct is deliberate and willful violation of the employer's rules and may include stealing, rowdy behavior, and insubordination. Sometimes the misconduct is more serious, as when it causes someone else harm. Page Ref: 525
17) When an employee's dismissal does not comply with the law or with the contractual agreement stated or implied by the firm via its employment application forms, employee manuals, or other promises, ________ has most likely occurred.
Explanation: Wrongful discharge refers to a dismissal that violates the law or that fails to comply with contractual arrangements stated or implied by the employer, for instance, in employee manuals. Page Ref: 525
18) A situation is most likely considered gross misconduct if it involves an employee ________.
Explanation: Gross misconduct has occurred if an employee violates safety or civil statues. Distracting co-workers, having a bad attitude, failing to complete tasks, and arriving late for work are not considered gross misconduct. Page Ref: 525-526
19) Which of the following terms refers to the willful disregard or disobedience of a supervisor's authority?
Explanation: Insubordination is a form of misconduct, and basically refers to willful disobedience and/or rebelliousness. Page Ref: 525-526
20) All of the following are examples of insubordination EXCEPT ________.
Explanation: Failing to perform tasks is a type of unsatisfactory performance. Acts of insubordination involve willfully disobeying authority.
Page Ref: 525-526
21) During which of the following is an employee informed of the fact that he or she has been dismissed?
Explanation: Telling an employee about his or her dismissal occurs in the termination interview. Exit interviews are conducted with employees who are leaving a firm for any reason for the purpose of gathering the employee's insight about the firm. Page Ref: 528
22) Which of the following is conducted with employees who are leaving a firm for the purpose of eliciting information about what is right or wrong with the job and the firm?
Explanation: Many employers conduct exit interviews with employees who are leaving the firm for any reason. These are interviews, usually conducted by a human resource professional just prior to the employee leaving; they elicit information about the job or employer with the aim of giving employers insights into what is right—or wrong—about the firm. Page Ref: 529 23) Which of the following terms refers to permanently dismissing a relatively large proportion of employees in an attempt to improve productivity and competitiveness?
Explanation: Downsizing refers to permanently dismissing a relatively large proportion of employees in an attempt to improve productivity and competitiveness. Page Ref: 531
24) Which of the following requires that employers of 100 or more employees provide 60 days' notice before starting a layoff of 50 or more people?
Explanation: The Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act (popularly known as the plant closing law) requires employers of 100 or more employees to give 60 days' notice before closing a facility or starting a layoff of 50 people or more. The law gives employees time to seek other work or retraining by giving them advance notice. Page Ref: 531
25) The plant closing law requires that employers ________.
Explanation: The Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act (popularly known as the plant closing law) requires employers of 100 or more employees to give 60 days' notice before closing a facility or starting a layoff of 50 people or more. The law gives employees time to seek other work or retraining by giving them advance notice. Page Ref: 531
26) The New York Stock Exchange recently eliminated all "reporter" jobs at the exchange. Reporters with seniority were able to remain employed by displacing co-workers in lower-level positions. Which of the following most likely occurred?
Explanation: Bumping occurs when an employee with seniority displaces a lower-level employee, or bumps them out of their position. Page Ref: 532
27) All of the following are layoff and downsizing alternatives EXCEPT having employees ________.
Explanation: Alternatives to layoffs and downsizing include finding volunteers who are interested in reducing hours or part-time work, reducing pay, having employees concentrate their vacations during slow periods, and having employees agree to take voluntary time off. Working overtime even at lower rates would not reduce costs for a firm. Page Ref: 533
Labor Relations and Collective Bargaining
28) About ________% of people working in the United States belong to unions.
Explanation: Just over 17.7 million U.S. workers belong to unions—around 12.4% of the total number of men and women working in this country. Page Ref: 544
29) One of the earliest unions in the United States, the Knights of Labor, was formed by a group of ________.
Explanation: In 1869, a group of tailors met and formed the Knights of Labor. The Knights were interested in political reform. Page Ref: 544
30) Who was responsible for forming the American Federation of Labor in 1886?
Explanation: In 1886, Samuel Gompers formed the American Federation of Labor (AFL). It consisted mostly of skilled workers and, unlike the Knights, focused on practical, bread-and-butter gains for its members. Page Ref: 544
31) Which of the following was the primary goal of the American Federation of Labor?
Explanation: Gompers and the AFL aimed to raise day-to-day wages and improve working conditions. Page Ref: 544-545
32 Which of the following best explains why union membership has fallen since the 1970s?
Explanation: Union membership has fallen since the 1970s. Reasons include the shift from manufacturing to service jobs, and new legislation (such as occupational safety laws) provides the sorts of protections that workers could once only obtain from their unions. Page Ref: 545
33) Which of the following is a false statement about union membership?
Explanation: Recent median weekly wages for union workers was $781, while that for nonunion workers was $612. Union workers also generally receive significantly more holidays, sick leave, unpaid leave, insurance plan benefits, long-term disability benefits, and various other benefits than nonunion workers do. Union membership is not exclusive to blue-collar workers. Page Ref: 545
34) Which of the following best describes the closed shop form of union security?
Explanation: Under the closed shop form of union security, the company can hire only current union members. Congress outlawed closed shops in interstate commerce in 1947, but they still exist in some states for particular industries (such as printing). They account for fewer than 5% of union contracts. Page Ref: 546
35) The ________ form of union security means that the company can hire only union members.
Explanation: Under the closed shop form of union security, the company can hire only current union members. Congress outlawed closed shops in interstate commerce in 1947, but they still exist in some states for particular industries. Page Ref: 546
36) The term ________ describes statutory or constitutional provisions banning the requirement of union membership as a condition of employment.
Explanation: Right to work is a term used to describe state statutory or constitutional provisions banning the requirement of union membership as a condition of employment. Right to work laws don't outlaw unions, but they do outlaw any form of union security. Page Ref: 546
37) Which of the following best describes the AFL-CIO?
Explanation: The American Federation of Labor and Congress of Industrial Organizations (AFL-CIO) is a voluntary federation of about 56 national and international labor unions in the United States. Page Ref: 546-547
38) Which of the following best describes a "yellow dog" contract?
Explanation: "Yellow dog" contracts, whereby management could require nonunion membership as a condition for employment, were widely enforced. Page Ref: 547
39) Prior to 1930, employers attempted to limit the influence of unions using all of the following methods EXCEPT ________.
Explanation: Until about 1930, there were no special labor laws. Employers were not required to engage in collective bargaining with employees and were virtually unrestrained in their behavior toward unions; the use of spies and firing of union agitators were widespread. "Yellow dog" contracts were widely enforced. Page Ref: 547
40) Which of the following guaranteed each employee the right to bargain collectively without interference, restraint, or coercion?
Explanation: The Norris-LaGuardia Act of 1932 guaranteed to each employee the right to bargain collectively "free from interference, restraint, or coercion." The National Labor Relations Act added on to Norris-LaGuardia by banning certain unfair labor practices. Page Ref: 548
41) Which of the following bans certain unfair labor practices and provides for majority rule and secret ballot elections?
Explanation: Congress passed the National Labor Relations (or Wagner) Act to add teeth to Norris-LaGuardia. It did this by banning certain unfair labor practices and by providing for secret-ballot elections and majority rule for determining whether a firm's employees would unionize. Page Ref: 548
42) Which of the following was established by the Wagner Act?
Explanation: The Wagner Act created the National Labor Relations Board to enforce the provisions of the act. Page Ref: 548
43) The National Labor Relations Board was primarily established for the purpose of ________.
Explanation: The National Labor Relations Board (NLR Page Ref: 548
44) The Taft-Hartley Act amended the Wagner Act in all of the following ways EXCEPT by ________.
Explanation: The Taft-Hartley Act did not alter the power of the NLRB. The law prohibited unfair labor practices, enumerated the rights of employers and employees, and allowed the President to bar national emergency strikes on a temporary basis. Page Ref: 548-550
45) Which of the following terms refers to an unfair labor practice in which a union requires an employer to pay an employee for services not performed?
Explanation: It is an unfair labor practice for a union to engage in featherbedding. Featherbedding involves requiring an employer to pay an employee for services not performed.
Page Ref: 550
46) Which law sought to protect union members from possible wrongdoing on the part of their unions?
Explanation: The Landrum-Griffin Act of 1959 was intended to protect union members from possible wrongdoing on the part of their unions. Page Ref: 551
47) Which of the following is a union organizing tactic by which union members are placed on nonunion job sites?
Explanation: The National Labor Relations Board defines union salting as "placing of union members on nonunion job sites for the purpose of organizing." Featherbedding involves requiring an employer to pay an employee for services not performed. Page Ref: 552
48) What percentage of eligible employees in a bargaining unit must sign authorization cards in order for the union to petition the NLRB for an election?
Explanation: Thirty percent of the eligible employees in an appropriate bargaining unit must sign before the union can petition the NLRB for an election. Page Ref: 552
49) Which of the following terms refers to the group of employees the union will be authorized to represent?
Explanation: The bargaining unit is the group of employees that the union will be authorized to represent and bargain for collectively. If the entire organization is the bargaining unit, the union will represent all nonsupervisory, non-managerial, and non-confidential employees, even though the union may be oriented mostly toward blue collar workers. Page Ref: 554
50) The union becomes the employees' representative if it receives ________.
Explanation: The union becomes the employees' representative if it wins the election, and winning means getting a majority of the votes cast, not a majority of the total workers in the bargaining unit. Page Ref: 555
51) All of the following increase the likelihood that an employer will lose an NLRB election EXCEPT ________.
Explanation: Employers tend to lose elections when they focus too much on wages and benefits, appoint uniformed committees to manage campaigns, and delegate union issues. Employers are more likely to win if they address the attitudes and concerns of all workers by sending out surveys and responding to their needs. Page Ref: 556
52) ________ is the process of legally terminating a union's right to represent employees.
Explanation: The same law that grants employees the right to unionize also gives them a way to terminate legally their union's right to represent them. The process is called decertification.
Page Ref: 559
53) When representatives of Ford's management and autoworkers union meet to negotiate a labor agreement, which of the following is most likely occurring?
Explanation: Collective bargaining is the process through which representatives of management and the union meet to negotiate a labor agreement. Page Ref: 559
54) Which of the following is a characteristic of good faith bargaining?
Explanation: Good faith bargaining is characterized by both parties making every reasonable effort to arrive at an agreement. Proposals are matched with counterproposals in good faith bargaining. Choices A, C, D, and E indicate that bargaining is not in good faith. Page Ref: 560
55) Which of the following terms refers to items in collective bargaining over which bargaining is neither illegal nor mandatory?
Explanation: Voluntary (or permissible) bargaining items are neither mandatory nor illegal; they become a part of negotiations only through the joint agreement of both management and union. Neither party can compel the other to negotiate over voluntary items. Page Ref: 561
56) All of the following are examples of mandatory bargaining items EXCEPT ________.
Explanation: Mandatory bargaining items are items in collective bargaining that a party must bargain over if they are introduced by the other party, such as employee security, shift differentials, profit-sharing plans, and drug testing. Voluntary bargaining items, such as indemnity bonds, become a part of negotiations only through the joint agreement of both management and union. Page Ref: 561
57) Which of the following is an illegal bargaining item?
Explanation: Illegal bargaining items are items in collective bargaining that are forbidden by law, such as discriminatory treatment. Choices A, D, and E are permissible items, and Choice C is a mandatory item. Page Ref: 561
58) Negotiators use all of the following types of third-party interventions to overcome an impasse EXCEPT ________.
Explanation: Negotiators use three types of third-party interventions to overcome an impasse: mediation, fact finding, and arbitration. Arbitration may be either binding or nonbinding. Picketing is not a third-party intervention method. Page Ref: 562
59) Which third-party intervention uses a neutral third party to assist the principals in reaching agreement?
Explanation: With mediation, a neutral third party tries to assist the principals in reaching agreement. The mediator usually holds meetings with each party to determine where each stands regarding its position, and then uses this information to find common ground for further bargaining.
Page Ref: 562
60) Which intervention method listed below is the most definitive of all third-party interventions?
Explanation: Arbitration is the most definitive type of third-party intervention, because the arbitrator often has the power to determine and dictate the settlement terms. Unlike mediation and fact finding, arbitration can guarantee a solution to an impasse. With binding arbitration, both parties are committed to accepting the arbitrator's award, but with nonbinding arbitration, they are not. Page Ref: 563
61) Which of the following terms refers to a strike that takes place when one union strikes in support of another union?
Explanation: A sympathy strike occurs when one union strikes in support of the strike of another union. A wildcat strike is an unauthorized strike occurring during the term of a contract.
Page Ref: 563
62) A strike that results from a failure to agree on the terms of a contract, such as wages and benefits, is known as a(n) ________ strike.
Explanation: An economic strike results from a failure to agree on the terms of a contract. Unions call unfair labor practice strikes to protest illegal conduct by the employer. A wildcat strike is an unauthorized strike occurring during the term of a contract. Page Ref: 563
63) Employers dealing with an unfair labor practice strike can use all of the following responses EXCEPT ________.
Explanation: Employers cannot permanently replace strikers who are protesting unfair labor practices. However, Choices A, B, C, and D are options in such a situation. Page Ref: 564-565
64) Union tactics designed to impede or disrupt production by encouraging employees to slow the pace of work, refuse to work overtime, and participate in sick-outs are called ________.
Explanation: Inside games are union efforts to convince employees to impede or to disrupt production, such as by slowing the work pace, refusing to work overtime, and filing mass charges with government agencies. Inside games are basically strikes in which the company continues to pay the employees. Page Ref: 566
65) Which of the following terms refers to the formal process for addressing any factor involving wages, hours, or conditions of employment that is used as a complaint against the employer?
Explanation: The grievance procedure provides an orderly system whereby both employer and union determine whether some action violated the contract. The grievance process allows both parties to interpret and give meaning to various clauses, and transforms the contract into a "living organism." Page Ref: 566
66) All of the following most likely explain the decline in union membership EXCEPT ________.
Explanation: Laws like OSHA and Title VII reduced the need for union protection. Increased global competition and new technologies like the Internet and just-in-time production systems forced employers to reduce inefficiencies and cut costs. Changes in salaries and wages are less likely to be a cause. Page Ref: 569
Employee Safety and Health
67) According to the U.S. Department of Labor, each year there are approximately ________ cases of workplace accidents per 100 full-time workers in the United States.
Explanation: The U.S. Department of Labor says workplace accidents in the United States cause over 3.8 million occupational injuries and illnesses per year—roughly 4.4 cases per 100 full-time workers. Page Ref: 582
68) All of the following are effective methods of improving workplace safety EXCEPT ________.
Explanation: Safety goals should be achievable and specific. Analyzing accident rates, publishing the firm's safety policy, and showing an organizational commitment to safety are effective methods of improving safety. Page Ref: 582
69) Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration?
Explanation: OSHA is the agency created within the Department of Labor to set safety and health standards for almost all workers in the United States. OSHA doesn't cover self-employed persons or farms in which only immediate members of the employer's family work. OSHA covers federal agencies, but usually not state and local governments. Page Ref: 583
70) The Occupational Safety and Health Act was intended to ________.
Explanation: The Occupational Safety and Health Act was intended to "assure so far as possible every working man and woman in the nation safe and healthful working conditions and to preserve our human resources." The Occupational Safety and Health Act doesn't cover self-employed persons or farms in which only immediate members of the employer's family work. The act covers federal agencies, but usually not state and local governments. Page Ref: 583
71) Which government agency enforces the standards set out in the Occupational Safety and Health Act?
Explanation: The Department of Labor enforces the standards established by the Occupational Safety and Health Act. OSHA has inspectors working out of branch offices. Page Ref: 583
72) Under OSHA, employers with ________ or more employees must maintain records of and report occupational injuries and occupational illnesses.
Explanation: The Department of Labor enforces the standards established by the Occupational Safety and Health Act. OSHA has inspectors working out of branch offices. Page Ref: 584
73) What term is used to describe any abnormal condition or disorder caused by exposure to environmental factors associated with employment?
Explanation: An occupational illness is any abnormal condition or disorder caused by exposure to environmental factors associated with employment. This includes acute and chronic illnesses caused by inhalation, absorption, ingestion, or direct contact with toxic substances or harmful agents. Page Ref: 584
74) According to OSHA, employers must report occupational injuries that result in any of the following EXCEPT ________.
Explanation: Employers must report most occupational injuries, specifically those that result in medical treatment (other than first aid), loss of consciousness, restriction of work (one or more lost workdays), restriction of motion, or transfer to another job. Page Ref: 584
75) According to OSHA, which of the following would most likely be considered the highest priority?
Explanation: OSHA still makes extensive use of inspections. OSHA takes a "worst-first" approach in setting inspection priorities. Priorities include, from highest to lowest, imminent dangers, catastrophes and fatal accidents, employee complaints, high-hazard industries inspections, and follow-up inspections. Page Ref: 585
76) Which of the following would be considered OSHA's lowest priority for inspection?
Explanation: OSHA still makes extensive use of inspections. OSHA takes a "worst-first" approach in setting inspection priorities. Priorities include, from highest to lowest, imminent dangers, catastrophes and fatal accidents, employee complaints, high-hazard industries inspections, and follow-up inspections. Page Ref:
585
77) What is the primary cause of workplace accidents?
Explanation: Unsafe conditions are the main cause of workplace accidents. Chance occurrences and employees' unsafe acts are less significant causes of workplace accidents. Page Ref: 590
78) Improperly guarded equipment, defective equipment, hazardous procedures, and improper ventilation are all examples of ________.
Explanation: Unsafe conditions refer to any mechanical and physical conditions that cause accidents, such as defective equipment and improper ventilation. Page Ref: 590
79) Which of the following accounts for one-third of all industrial accidents?
Explanation: About one-third of industrial accidents occur around forklift trucks, wheelbarrows, and other handling and lifting areas. The most serious accidents usually occur by metal and woodworking machines and saws, or around transmission machinery like gears, pulleys, and flywheels. Falls on stairs, ladders, walkways, and scaffolds are the third most common cause of industrial accidents. Page Ref: 590-591
80) In most large facilities, who is responsible for reducing unsafe working conditions and reducing unsafe acts by employees?
Explanation: In large facilities, the chief safety officer (often called the "Environmental Health and Safety Officer") is responsible for reducing unsafe acts and unsafe conditions. In smaller firms, managers, including those from human resources, plant management, and first-line managers, share these responsibilities. Page Ref: 591
81) All of the following are considered vulnerable workers EXCEPT ________.
Explanation: In designing safe and healthy environments, employers need to pay special attention to vulnerable workers, those who are "unprepared to deal with hazards in the workplace," either due to lack of education, ill-fitting personal protective equipment, physical limitations, or cultural reasons. Among others, these may include young workers, immigrant workers, aging workers, and women workers. Page Ref: 596
82) During the early 2000s, which demographic group experienced an increase of almost 50% in workplace fatalities in the construction industry?
Explanation: With increasing numbers of Spanish-speaking workers in the United States, experts express concern about their safety. For example, the number of Hispanic fatalities in construction rose by almost 50% in the early 2000s, because so many more Hispanics are now working in construction jobs. Page Ref: 598
83) All of the following are major sources of occupational respiratory disease EXCEPT ________.
Explanation: There are four major sources of occupational respiratory diseases: asbestos, silica, lead, and carbon dioxide. Of these, asbestos is a major concern, in part because of publicity surrounding asbestos in buildings constructed before the mid-1970s. Page Ref: 605
84) According to OSHA standards, which of the following substances has the lowest permissible exposure limit?
Explanation: The permissible exposer limit of asbestos is the lowest at .1001. Vinyl chloride is .1017, lead is .1025, cadmium is .1027, and formaldehyde is .1048. Page Ref: 605
85) Alcoholism among employees will most likely lead to an increase in ________.
Explanation: The alcoholic's on-the-job accidents usually don't increase significantly, apparently, because he or she becomes much more cautious. However, the off-the-job accident rate is higher. Morale of other workers drops because they have to shoulder the alcoholic's burdens. Page Ref: 606
86) Which of the following is one of the earliest indicators of an employee's possible alcoholism?
Explanation: Missed deadlines are an early sign of possible alcoholism. Violent outbursts, mood swings, forgetfulness, and personal neglect may occur in more advanced stages of alcoholism.
Page Ref: 606-607
87) Which of the following is NOT one of the primary methods of dealing with a current employee who tests positive for illegal drugs?
Explanation: When a current employee tests positive for drugs, disciplining, discharge, in-house counseling, and referral to an outside agency are the four traditional prescriptions. Arrest is unlikely in most cases. Page Ref: 607
88) What employers are bound by the Drug-Free Workplace Act?
Explanation: The federal Drug-Free Workplace Act requires employers with federal government contracts or grants to ensure a drug-free workplace by taking a number of steps. Page Ref: 608
89) ________ is defined as the total depletion of physical and mental resources caused by excessive striving to reach an unrealistic work-related goal.
Explanation: Burnout is a phenomenon closely associated with job stress. Experts define burnout as the total depletion of physical and mental resources caused by excessive striving to reach an unrealistic work-related goal. Page Ref: 609
90) Which of the following is a true statement regarding workplace smoking?
Explanation: Employers can deny a job to smokers, even if they only smoke at home. Smoking is not a disability, so the ADA does not protect smokers. Employers have higher costs due to higher health and fire insurance, increased absenteeism, and reduced productivity. Page Ref: 611
91) The second biggest cause of fatal workplace injuries is ________.
Explanation: Homicide is the second biggest cause of fatal workplace injuries after workplace safety issues. Page Ref: 611
92) What is the primary motive for homicides that occur at work?
Explanation: While robbery was the main motive for homicide at work, a coworker or personal associate committed roughly one of seven workplace homicides. Page Ref: 611
93) About half of all workplace homicides occur in ________.
Explanation: About half of workplace homicides occur in the retail industry, most likely due to robberies. As a result, OSHA has issued voluntary recommendations aimed at reducing homicides and injuries in such establishments. Page Ref: 612
94) Which of the following is NOT among the common clues that usually precede a violent incident at work?
Explanation: Clues that typically precede violent incidents include verbal threats, physical actions like intimidation, frustration, and obsession. A violent act is less likely to be preceded with a written threat. Page Ref: 613
95) Which of the following safety issues became a top priority of employers following the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001?
Explanation: After the terrorist attacks, many firms instituted formal disaster plans and held regular evacuation drills. Workplace violence, employee screening, drug abuse, and fire hazards remain important, but they did not change as a result of the events on September 11, 2001.
Page Ref: 615
Managing Global Human Resources
96) ________ are citizens of the countries where they are working.
Explanation: Locals are citizens of the countries where they are working. Expatriates are non-citizens of the countries in which they are working. Home-country nationals are citizens of the country in which the multinational company has its headquarters. Page Ref: 635
97) Of the types of international workers that multinational companies can employ, locals are best described as ________.
Explanation: Locals are citizens of the countries where they are working. Expatriates are non-citizens of the countries in which they are working. Home-country nationals are citizens of the country in which the multinational company has its headquarters. Page Ref: 635
98) ________ are noncitizens of the countries in which they are working.
Explanation: Expatriates are non-citizens of the countries in which they are working. Locals are citizens of the countries where they are working. Home-country nationals are citizens of the country in which the multinational company has its headquarters. Page Ref: 635
99) Which of the following terms refers to citizens of a country other than the parent or the host country?
Explanation: Third-country nationals are citizens of a country other than the parent or the host country. Home-country nationals are citizens of the country in which the multinational company has its headquarters. Page Ref: 635-636
100) Which of the following terms refers to citizens of the country in which the multinational company has its headquarters?
Explanation: Home-country nationals are citizens of the country in which the multinational company has its headquarters. Third-country nationals are citizens of a country other than the parent or the host country. Page Ref: 635-636
101) Which of the following terms refers to having local employees abroad do jobs that the firm's domestic employees previously did in-house?
Explanation: Offshoring means having local employees abroad do jobs that the firm's domestic employees previously did in-house. Offshoring is an increasingly popular staffing option.
Page Ref: 637
102) Which of the following terms refers to the belief that home country attitudes, management style, knowledge, evaluation criteria, and managers are superior to anything the host country has to offer?
Explanation: An ethnocentric corporation believes that home-country attitudes, management style, knowledge, evaluation criteria, and managers are superior to anything the host country might have to offer. A polycentric-oriented firm would staff its foreign subsidiaries with host-country nationals, and its home office with parent-country nationals. A geocentric staffing policy seeks the best people for key jobs regardless of nationality. Page Ref: 638
103) The most common reason that an expatriate fails at an international assignment is ________.
Explanation: Family support is the most significant factor in the success or failure of an expatriate. If the family of the executive cannot adapt or is negative about the international assignment, then the employee will most likely have difficulties. Choices A, B, C, and E are less significant issues. Page Ref: 638-639, 642
104) Which of the following best explains why female managers receive fewer foreign assignments than male managers?
Explanation: Surveys indicate that supervisors assume women will face cultural prejudice and safety problems, but neither is an issue. Supervisors also assume that women are not interested in leaving the U.S. and that their spouses will be reluctant to do so. Therefore, it is the misperceptions of supervisors that have led to a small percentage of female managers being sent abroad. Page Ref: 640
105) Before departing for an overseas assignment, an employee would most likely benefit from ________ training.
Explanation: Assignees benefit from training on the culture and language of the country in which they will be living. Such training helps them adapt and to work more effectively with locals. Page Ref: 643
106) ________ refers to bringing a manager back home after a foreign assignment has been completed.
Explanation: Expatriation refers to sending a worker to work overseas, while repatriation is the process of bringing the employee back to his or her home country. Repatriation programs help employees and their families make smooth adjustments. Page Ref: 649