Violence always accompanies revolts, but …show more content…
Shown with the American and French Revolutions, violence must have a clear defined goal of fundamental change of a government or it can turn poorly. During the French Revolution terror was used to justify the means of social change. Burke was really saying revolution and the violence that goes with it is not justifiable. Thomas Paine disagrees and views monarchy as evil and the solution is revolution to change the principles in place. Paine sees revolution, even when it goes south, as justifiable in monarchical countries because monarchies are inherently wrong. Whereas Locke has a safer middle ground saying if a government exercises “force without right” then the people have the right to revolution. Who gets to decide if force was used with or without right? Can anyone truly determine that with objectivity? The revolutions that took place after the Soviet Union fell, show that violence does not always go with revolution. Violence can be used to overthrow a