Introduction
The eighteenth century was a period of many changes in both America and Europe. Many wars took place in different battlefields including the entire American continent, All Europe and the Atlantic Ocean. Many groups of people awakened and fought for independence in the British Colonies. And European and American philosophers defined the period as of the enlightenment.
By the year of 1650 the European population was 103 million and by the end of the eighteenth century that quantity had increased to 192 million. [2] A total increase of 89 million people was a result of the many reforms of the enlightenment. But the question that comes up is how these reforms contributed to the prosperity of each nation?
To answer to the question, in this paper it will be analyzed how the political movements for the Spanish and British Empires during the colonial period differed. It will be first considered the antecedents for each nation and from that point it will exposed the major political events that happened in both Empires. And inside these antecedents, it will be discussed how Immanuel Kant defined “enlightenment”.
What is Enlightenment?
In December 1783 the philosopher Johann Friedrich Zöllner asked the question “What is enlightenment?” in a footnote of an article published in the journal Berlinische Monatsschrift (the leading journal of enlightenment though in Germany) [2]. Many philosophers soon published responses to the question in the same journal and in others. However, Inmanuel Kant wrote an outstanding response in December 1784 in his essay “In answer to the question: What is Enlightenment?”. The contents of his essay are summarized in the following paragraph.
Kant’s idea of enlightenment was viewed as a self –incurred immaturity. And from Kant’s viewpoint, immaturity was a concept defined as the inability to make use of one’s own understanding without the guidance of another. [3] In
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