Some suggest here nomos means the Old Testament Torah, and others that nomos means rule/order/norm. Udo Schnelle examines the context of nomos found in Romans 3 and suggests that nomos here is in reference to some rule or order. Whereas other scholars contend that throughout this section in Romans nomos denotes the Mosaic Law. This paper defines “law,” as used in Romans 3:27-31, as not merely the Torah, but as the principles followed by the Jewish people that identified them as God’s people. This idea of nomos reinforced Israel’s privilege that separates Israel from other nations. However Paul pushes back against this notion which will be discussed …show more content…
He begins in verse 27 with a question, “Then what becomes of boasting? By what law? By that of works?” He answers, “No.” Two reasons can be given for Paul’s strong response, one is found earlier in Romans where Paul points out that no one is fully righteous by obeying the law, precisely because no one can fully obey the law. The second reason is because Paul understands justification through the law of faith because the law of works limits God. Paul supports his theory by correlating ‘law of work’ with ‘God of Jews only,’ and ‘law of faith’ with ‘God also of Gentiles.’ Believing that boasting is acceptable in the works of the law restricts God to the Jewish people alone. However, as Paul alludes to in Romans 3:30, Israel’s own basic creed is “Hear, O Israel: The Lord our God, the Lord is one,” so God cannot be limited to Jews alone, God must also be available to the Gentiles. In order to emancipate justification from the restrictions of the law of works, Paul proposes a universal law of faith as the means of justification. Consequently, one cannot boast of works because all are equal under the law of