In the beginning of the play, Macbeth hears a prophecy foretold by the Three Witches, in which he’s told that he is destined to kill King Duncan in order to acquire the throne. …show more content…
He says, “[s]he should have died hereafter. There would have been time for such a word” (5.5.17-18). By this, he means that she was inconveniencing him by dying so soon, and that she should have died later. After this, he says, “… [life] is a tale told by an idiot, full of sound and fury, signifying nothing” (5.5.26-28). This can lead the reader to infer that he was referencing Lady Macbeth and her life, and how her life had also signified nothing. In addition to this, the fact that Lady Macbeth took her own life says a lot about her destructive relationship with Macbeth, who wasn't even fazed when his “partner of greatness” died. She most likely took her own life because of how her relationship with Macbeth had been going downhill like an avalanche, and couldn't bear being in a relationship with that amount of toxicity. Additionally, in the next scene, Macbeth states, “[w]hy should I play the Roman fool and die on mine own sword?” (5.8.1-2). This basically means that he refuses to resort to killing himself like the defeated Roman generals used to. This is easily interpreted as a jab at how his wife gave up on their relationship and killed herself in defeat rather than working through their problems, and it hints at a possible abusive situation that Shakespeare didn’t introduce the reader to. Macbeth made his wife’s death seem insignificant and cowardly, instead of wondering what he did wrong that led her to make that