In Karl Marx’s, “The Theory of Surplus Value” is a reinforcement that illustrates the exploitation of laborers in a capitalist society. Although his theory is just an expansion of David Ricardo “Labor Theory of Value”, it is a contribution that simplifies the meaning of use value, exchange value and value. Surplus value is, in essence, the money form of social product excess or, just as same, the money produced by surplus labor. Marx suggests that to put an end to alienation a theoretical system should be incorporated to ensure workers were paid based on the quantity and quality of labor-power.
Recalling Marx’s “Alienation and Social Classes” laborers and the objects they produce are considered property. Since the worker does not see any benefits from the goods he produces he is therefore separated. Marx believes the way to combat this “alienation” is through the theory of surplus value. Since the social product of income is generated through the process of production, what happens to the equal distribution of income? From what I understand it goes back into the process to create more products to produce more income. I wondered where the surplus could come from if all the money that is needed goes write back into the process of production. Where does the surplus value come from? Is it the reduction of the dominant class that produces surplus money? After reading I believe I have an idea.
Because laborers add value to the products they produce the product itself is greater than the money that went into procuring the object. A car does not turn into a car on its own even if all of the pieces are available. When the laborer assembles the car together and makes it drivable than the value of the car surpass the price of the parts of the car and the use value increases as well. The labor- power creates the surplus value.
It is easy to see how Marx’s surplus value theory could