Every other scripture that speaks of homosexuality talks of a male being with another male. Romans 1:26 says "Their women exchanged natural intercourse for unnatural" which shows that the women were once heterosexual because they exchanged natural ways, meaning being with men, to be with women. Romans 1:27 says "and in the same way also the men, giving up natural intercourse with women, were consumed with passion for one another." If the men gave up women, they too, were once heterosexual. The fact that both men and women gave up the opposite sex and went for same sex does not mean that they were going against their nature. Romans says they are in the wrong because they are going against their nature but what if their nature is to be homosexuals? That would mean if they engaged in heterosexual acts they would then be going against their nature and be sinning once …show more content…
Many things have changed since the time that The Bible was written. Men were superior to women back in that time. In today's society men and women are treated equally. The question of should The Bible change because times have changed is a very tricky one. The question does not simply have one answer. It is left up to each individual person and how they view The Bible. How well people understand The Bible has a lot to do with their views. Whether people take The Bible literally also has a lot of effect on how they see things from it. Most Christians take The Bible literally. Whether or not people take The Bible literally does not affect how they can still learn from the stories. The Bible takes time to understand, especially with a subject as controversial as