Comparison Of The Treaty Of Versailles And World War II
The Treaty of Versailles and World War II
World War II, officially lasting from 1939 to 1945, was a global conflict between the Axis, consisting of Germany, Italy, and Japan, and the Allied powers of Great Britain, France, the United States, and Russia. In the years prior, Germany had been taking back land lost after the singing of the Treaty of Versailles in 1919 and put an end to World War I. It also forced Germany to accept responsibility for the war, pay reparations, decrease their military greatly. While many argue that the German invasion of Poland on September 1, 1939 began World War II, as this caused Great Britain and France to end their policy of appeasement and declare war, I believe the root cause of the war is the signing of the Treaty of Versailles. The Treaty of Versailles caused economic struggles due to the harsh reparations it required Germany to pay, which launched …show more content…
According to the New World Encyclopedia, these feelings fostered a desire for revenge. After Hitler gained power in 1933, he was determined to overturn the territorial aspects of Versailles. He began to try to secure “Lebensraum,” meaning living space in German. This, of course, meant gaining more territory. In September 1938, Germany seized control of the Sudetenland, which they had lost under Versailles. This began France and Great Britain’s appeasement policy, which allowed Germany to acquire more land so long as they had just cause. Austria was incorporated into Germany, known as Anschluss, and the country took control of Czechoslovakia, the Rhineland, and the Free City of Danzig. They also conquered Poland, causing Great Britain and France to declare war. Without the Treaty of Versailles taking this land from Germany, this land grab likely would not have happened, and thus preventing war in the first
World War II, officially lasting from 1939 to 1945, was a global conflict between the Axis, consisting of Germany, Italy, and Japan, and the Allied powers of Great Britain, France, the United States, and Russia. In the years prior, Germany had been taking back land lost after the singing of the Treaty of Versailles in 1919 and put an end to World War I. It also forced Germany to accept responsibility for the war, pay reparations, decrease their military greatly. While many argue that the German invasion of Poland on September 1, 1939 began World War II, as this caused Great Britain and France to end their policy of appeasement and declare war, I believe the root cause of the war is the signing of the Treaty of Versailles. The Treaty of Versailles caused economic struggles due to the harsh reparations it required Germany to pay, which launched …show more content…
According to the New World Encyclopedia, these feelings fostered a desire for revenge. After Hitler gained power in 1933, he was determined to overturn the territorial aspects of Versailles. He began to try to secure “Lebensraum,” meaning living space in German. This, of course, meant gaining more territory. In September 1938, Germany seized control of the Sudetenland, which they had lost under Versailles. This began France and Great Britain’s appeasement policy, which allowed Germany to acquire more land so long as they had just cause. Austria was incorporated into Germany, known as Anschluss, and the country took control of Czechoslovakia, the Rhineland, and the Free City of Danzig. They also conquered Poland, causing Great Britain and France to declare war. Without the Treaty of Versailles taking this land from Germany, this land grab likely would not have happened, and thus preventing war in the first