It is “a public, nonviolent, and consenctious act contrary to law usually done with the intent to bring about a change in the policies or laws of the government” (Rawls). Rawls stresses that for civil disobedience to occur, it is naturally nonviolent. It is done so to promote change, because of the social contract that all members of the society have agreed to. When this act occurs, those involved do so while accepting their punishment without resistance or any form of violence. This insures that the participants appeal to the respect of the law, and make it known that they respect the law; but disagree with the majorities’ current law(s) or practices. To violate this practice is to engage in forceful conduct that neither appreciates the law or adheres to the social …show more content…
That is, in my view, he makes it so as to render violence an action that is wrong in it self. These people are made out to be “terrorist.” That those who use violence do so merely to get what they wish with complete disregard for the agreed safety and balance that the laws provide. In this, I feel Rawls thinks of violent people as aggressors who use bully tactics to get what they want, violating the social contract of majority rules. Rawls makes the assumption that violence is itself separate from man, or at the very least a separate action in it self. That violence cannot be connected in any way with civil disobedience, and as such makes the practice one of which is used for the sake of doing physical harm that is out of harmony with the civil