Sartre claims that existence precedes …show more content…
Kant (who just so happens to be mentioned in Sartre’s “Existentialism is a Humanism” and his deontology, for example. In the ninth paragraph, Sartre says "When we say that man chooses himself, we do mean that every one of us must choose himself; but by that we also mean that in choosing for himself he chooses for all men". According to Kant’s Categorical imperative, we do not have the choice to choose for others. Kant shows that it is a contradiction to choose for himself and for others because you have to treat everyone as an ends, not a means. If you choose for yourself (and thus others), then you are using others as a means to the ideals that you have personally chosen..
Again in the 9th paragraph,"...I decide to marry and to have children, even though this decision proceeds simply from my situation, from my passion or my desire, I am thereby committing not only myself, but humanity as a whole, to the practice of monogamy". Kant would argue that man has no right to do so, because monogamy is not an ends, but a means to an end. Logic is the only thing that can decide for men, because it is universal and it is …show more content…
He means that man has the same potential for developing fundamental qualities. Our thinking revolves around 2 things: time and space. The infrastructure of our mind, of being able to represent things abstractly in time and space, is what's universal. What we think of, the qualities we come up with, however, are not. When Sartre states "Furthermore, although it is impossible to find in each and every man a universal essence that can be called human nature, there is nevertheless a human universality of condition." in the 12th paragraph from the end, Kant would most certainly agree. Human nature cannot be discovered: Human universality lies in condition only, so Sartre argues that subjectivity of existentialism is compatible with the universality of condition, just like