During this reading, Du Bois (1899) states that, “In the case of the negroes the segregation is more conspicuous, more patent to the eye.” (1) However, he merely states that it is, “So intertwined with a long historic evolution.” He also says, “There are other unassimilated groups: Jews, Italians, even Americans.” With this in mind, I noticed that he did not elaborate on why blacks were more noticeably segregated than these other groups. Thus, my big idea is, “How did blacks end up worse off than other unpopular social groups?” …show more content…
In this case, there must be a reason behind it. While I cannot confirm or deny any particular reasons that may be the cause, I have a few ideas as to why this is true. At the time of the study, only around thirty years have elapsed since the Civil War and the abolition of slavery. Therefore, there have only been around two generations, which is a short time to develop skilled labor among liberated slaves on the level of other social groups.
Additionally, at this point in time, multitudes of people are immigrating to the United States in search of new opportunities. A mass exodus is taking place, causing a surplus of workers. In a time where certain social groups are placed higher than others, with blacks being at or near the bottom, this can cause a shortage of work among the black population which leads to poverty and further deteriorating living conditions. Combined with the new environment of urban, industrial work, this does not bode well for the black