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    First step in calculating WACC is to use the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) CAPM = Rf + Beta (MRP) Rf = Risk Free Rate Beta = Market figure as to how stock reacts to market fluctuations MRP = Market return rate – risk free rate Rf = 7.92% (Figured using 30-year Treasury Bond Yeild) Beta = 1.23 (Calculated using the average of all copetitors) MRP = 7.5% (Prime Rate in Exhibit 9) CAPM = 7.92% + 1.23(7.5%) = 7.92% + 9.23% = 17.15% WACC = Kd (1-t)

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    Case Study of Cost of Capital at Ameritrade 1-a How can the CAPM be used to estimate the cost of capital for a real business investment decision? CAPM results can be compared to the best expected rate of return that investor can possibly earn in other investments with similar risks‚ which is the cost of capital. Under the CAPM‚ the market portfolio is a well-diversified‚ efficient portfolio representing the non-diversifiable risk in the economy. Therefore‚ investments have similar risk if they

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    Fama-French findings? Do they make sense? Should we expect small stocks to outperform large stocks in the future? And‚ should we expect value stocks to outperform growth stocks? What did Fama and French discover about the CAPM and beta? How do you reconcile the empirical findings with the CAPM theory? 3. Discuss DFA’s trading strategy. How does it work‚ and what are the costs and benefits? Can DFA keep the competitive advantage in the future? Why don’t competitors emulate DFA’s approach? 4. What are DFA’s

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    return?        0%        5%        13%        none of the above 8. According to the CAPM (capital asset pricing model)‚ the security market line is a straight line. The intercept of this line should be equal to (Points: 1)        zero        the expected risk premium on the market portfolio        the risk-free rate        the expected return on the market portfolio 9. According to the CAPM (capital asset pricing model)‚ the security market line is a straight line. The slope of this

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    Question (2010/2011 Exam – Q7 (section B)): The Capital Asset Pricing Model holds in economies satisfying a certain set of conditions. State four of these conditions and identify why they are essential for the model to hold (you are not expected to derive the entire model but you must identify the steps in the theory where these conditions play an important role). Under 7 sets of key assumptions‚ we know that all agents will hold a particular market portfolio‚ which consists of the same proportion

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    Note:- Company has stopped manufacturing this model. The Rajdoot Deluxe has a powerful 175 cc‚ 9 BHP engine with electronic ignition. This tough and highly durable motorcycle has making it a total economy bike by virtue of its low running costs‚ easy serviceability and high re-sale value. WiWith over 16 lakh bikes on the road‚ Rajdoot continues to be the favourite of the Indian masses. Its relevant technology for the Indian road condition makes it suitable for all types of terrain. The Rajdoot

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    Chinese steel mill contracts lasting for around 10 years. Baosteel was the first company to receive their iron ore. For the share valuation‚ the report uses the CAPM model to determine the prevailing cost of capital and also uses the dividend discount multistage model to predict the share price for the company. The components of the CAPM model (i.e. risk free rate‚ company beta‚ Market return and growth rate) are calculated and predicted on historical data. The valuation data is then compared with

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    can beat the market. Technical analysis methods include Fibonacci analysis‚ moving average analysis‚ and relative strength index analysis‚ beta analysis among others. In this model we attempt to predict ZSE stock movements using CAPM (beta) analysis. MODEL DEVELOPMENT The CAPM model asserts that the value of a stock is a function of the risk free rate‚ beta of a stock and stock market risk premium. Estimating risk free rate In developed economies the risk free rate is easy to estimate‚ it is treasury

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    the autocovariance function and the sample autocovariance function. Question 2: Application The capital asset pricing model (CAPM) can be written as E(Rjt |Rmt ‚ Rf t ) = Rf t + βj (Rmt − Rf t )‚ where Rjt is the net return of security j at period t‚ Rmt is the return on a market portfolio proxy‚ and Rf t is the return on a risk-free proxy. The coefficient βj is the CAPM beta for security j. Suppose that you have estimated βj by ordinary least squares and found that the estimated value was 1.37 with

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