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How Did The Decline Of The Spanish Empire

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How Did The Decline Of The Spanish Empire
The Fall of the Spanish Empire The Spanish Empire experienced a time of massive growth and exploration which came to an end in 1588. By 1598 Phillip III had inherited Spain with a bankrupt economy. This marked the decline of the great empire that had controlled an extensive amount of territories. Its decline can be attributed to the massive influx of gold and silver into the economy during the Age of Exploration which made Spain temporarily wealthy but had irreversible negative long term economic effects. Originally, this plethora of gold and silver helped fund Spain's bureaucracy, military, and the constant wars in Europe. It is clear that “Spanish society had become addicted to the influx of American treasure”(Flynn 139). In addition, this …show more content…

There were tensions between Philip II and Elizabeth I of England. After the death of Mary I of England, relations between these two empires started to decline with the reign of Elizabeth I. Religion was a major cause to the tensions between these two nations. Philip II promoted Catholicism and so did Mary I who used harsh tactics in trying to make England a Catholic country. When Elizabeth I took power she ignored what Mary I had done and promoted the Anglican Church and Protestantism. Elizabeth I made it mandatory to engage with the Anglican Church and further ruined relations with Spain. Spain began end its positive relations with England because of their different religions. There were three primary reasons for the creation of the Spanish Armada. The first is because of the English pirates who had the consent of the queen to steal and pillage Spanish ships for gold and silver. Furthermore, England had set strict rules for practicing Catholics, which upset Spain. It was a serious crime to be Catholic in England and people were often imprisoned. Lastly, England had supported many of the enemies that Spain had fought so hard to convert such as the Dutch. The Treaty of Nonsuch declared that England would aid the Dutch in a battle against …show more content…

The Spanish were successful in colonizing many territories because of “Spain's political preeminence during the sixteenth and early seventeenth centuries was, in large measure, the result of its military preeminence” (Dupuy). The Spanish Armada had a profoundly negative effect on the Spanish economy. The total cost to build the Spanish Armada was 10 million ducats, but was expected to have only cost 3.5 million ducats. Ducats is the currency in most European countries. By 1595 Philip II was spending more that 12 million ducats a year to maintain the Armada. The cost to build the Spanish Armada came in the form of taxes and loans. The millones tax was created to "make 8 million ducats in 6 years" (Carter). Nevertheless, these taxes always came from the lower class which created a problem. Spain finally came to its knees in 1596 when the bubonic plague hit the people of Spain. The Spanish Plague of 1596 killed more half a million people and continued to kill for seven years. The Spanish Plague was the last straw in Spain's

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