Others understand the verb וְכָתַב in a jussive sense. For example, the KJV translates the phrase as “let him write.” Those who advocate this position suggest that the phrase carries more than a permissive reading, and emphasizes an obligative understanding. In his syntactic analysis of Deuteronomy 24:1-4, Warren states that Moses gives God’s prescription …show more content…
There are two viable options. The first view is that her initial indecent behavior עֶרְוַת דָּבָר is what defiled her. The second view sees her second marriage as something that has defiled her. In favor of the first option is the fact that Jeremiah 3:1-9 uses the analogy in Deuteronomy 24:1-4 to picture Israel as a woman who had separated from her husband and had lived as an unrepentant harlot. Such actions were “defiling” (Jer 3:2, 9). The major objection to this option is that by focusing on the woman’s indecent behavior, this view makes her second marriage irrelevant. In favor of the second option is that it gives explanation to the second marriage mentioned in Deuteronomy 24:2 and cohere with Jesus’ perspective on the Old Testament concession (Matt 5:32; 19:9; Mark 10:1-12, Luke 16:18). Overall, this seems to be the more likely