1st Timothy 2:12 is often cited as being a reason that the Bible in-and-of itself, is an oppressive document and that the religion of Christianity as a whole is oppressive to women and shouldn’t even be considered trustworthy or worthy of consideration. Now, this is what 1st Timothy 2:12 says: “I do not permit a woman to teach or to have authority over a man; she must be silent.”
The verse is seen up-front as being pretty “problematic,” but it doesn’t have to be; in-fact, the verse makes a world of sense when historical context is applied.
THE SETTING
Paul wrote 1st Timothy to his coworker and disciple Timothy to remind him “how people ought to conduct themselves in God’s household, which is the church of the living God” (1 Timothy 3:15). Paul needed to send this reminder because the church at Ephesus, where Timothy was left to …show more content…
This gives rise to envy, dissension, slanders, evil suspicions, 5 and constant bickering by people corrupted in their minds and deprived of the truth, who suppose that godliness is a way of making a profit.” (1st Timothy 6:4-5)
The false teachers stressed abstinence as a means of spirituality. They taught abstinence from certain foods, from marriage, and probably from sex in general:
4:1 Now the Spirit explicitly says that in the later times some will desert the faith and occupy themselves with deceiving spirits and demonic teachings, 2 influenced by the hypocrisy of liars whose consciences are seared. 3 They will prohibit marriage and require abstinence from foods that God created to be received with thanksgiving by those who believe and know the truth.” (1st Timothy 4:1-3)
And this is where we begin nearing the main point of this essay. In these verses, Paul stated that many women were beginning to follow this false doctrine:
5:15 “For some (women) have already wandered away to follow Satan.” (1st Timothy