United States was justified since Mexico had not endeavor governmental power over California. As …show more content…
was justified, because Mexico had invaded the United States' territory, and had killed Americans in that territory. As James Polk claims, "Mexico has passed the boundary of the U.S., has invaded out our territory and shed American blood on American soil." (Document B) Mexico had killed Americans on the part of the United States territory. "...became engaged with a large body of these (Mexican) troops... in which some sixteen (American) were killed and wounded." Because of this, US had casus belli.
Americans had already moved into to Texas, and because of this, US was justified to fight Mexico. "U.S. had already begun to (move) into Texas..." (Document D). The US already had Texas, and Mexico had attacked them. "The Anglo-Saxon foot is already on borders..." Americans had moved to Texas, in which Mexico had assaulted the US.
Americans was justified in going in war with Mexico since Mexico didn’t exert any governmental help towards Texas, in which already had Americans there, where some were killed because of Mexicans. Mexico did not endeavor any governmental authority over Texas. Many Americans were already in Texas, and Mexico had attacked Texans. Yes, United States was justified in going to war with